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UPSC CSE Mains 2019 Essay Paper Solution PDF Download

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• Overall the GS II paper (CSAT) was tough, and proper choice of questions was important to score well. The RC passages were neither easy enough to grasp immediately, nor were the questions too direct. Many questions in Maths were not easy at all.
• The CSAT has been a qualifying test from 2015, was manageable in 2016, and quite tough in 2017. But 2018 saw a not-too-tough version! And then 2019 was again tough.
• Pattern changes over the years : Year 2017 saw only RC, Reasoning and Maths being asked. They balanced it out in 2018, by asking many questions from Data Interpretation (DI) and Visual Reasoning also! Then they again “imbalanced it” in 2019! Lesson: Patterns change, be ready!
• Major change in structure of 2019 Test : Questions asked only from 3 major topics. The distribution of questions was – 37 questions on Mathematics and Basic Numeracy, 30 questions on Reading Comprehension and 13 questions on Logical and Analytical Reasoning. Last year it was 18, 26, 16 respectively. (Check comparison table)
• Reading Comprehension : The RC questions (mirror copy in English and Hindi) were tough and excellent! Overall 30 questions spread over 24 passages (last year it was 30 Q. spread over 29 passages, and in 2017 it was 27 Q. spread over 17 passages). That made sure that only the readers with reasonable speed could perform.
• Many RC questions were very tough, and options too were tricky. Questions were from all hot topics (environment, ecology, global warming, science and technology, biology etc.) that we read daily as part of our preparations! Care was taken to insert English words in Hindi passages to tone down the toughness of technical Hindi, for Hindi students. Overall 30 questions spread over 24 passages (passages were all small size, but not easy to grasp).
• Maths not easy : Once again, Maths was not easy, and even the arithmetic type questions required some work. For the complete maths-haters & / or non-Maths students, it could be a problem. Sitters were not more than 5.
• Logical and Analytical Reasoning needed some thought : While some relations based questions were not tough, the sets were not easy or direct.
• Overall, some practice is indeed required for the CSAT. You cannot just assume you’ll breeze through it without any preparation. Those who took it very lightly may pay the ultimate price : cracking Paper I and getting stuck here. We hope it doesn’t happen with anyone. Best of luck!
• Data Interpretation which came in a big way in 2018 was completely missing in 2019.
• A sincere hope! We sincerely hope that the government either makes the Paper II CSAT also mandatory like the Paper I, or simply scraps it altogether. In the present format, very few students take interest in it, and it’s becoming more of a mere formality to be completed. That reduces the intensity of the exercise, and is never good for student morale. Aptitude is a key part of an administrative officer’s life, and it is wrong to say that it should be only qualifying by nature.

1. If every alternative letter of the English alphabet from B onwards (including B) is written in lower case (small letters) and the remaining letters are capitalized, then how is the first month of the second half of the year written?

Sol. Answer is (d). If we will write the English alphabet as described in the question we will get the 26 letters as – AbCdEfGhIjKlMnOpQrStUvWxYz. So, July will be written jUlY.

To do this mentally, break up the 26 alphabets into 13 pairs of two alphabets each – ab, cd, ef, ….. yz. Then, mentally visualize them to become – Ab, Cd, Ef, ….. Yz. Then July will have y at the end. That is capital Y. So options (b) and (c) are ruled out. And alphabet j will be in small caps. So (a) is ruled out. So answer is option (d).

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2. Sunita cuts a sheet of paper into three pieces. Length of first piece is equal to the average of the three single digit odd prime numbers. Length of the second piece is equal to that of the first plus one-third the length of the third. The third piece is as long as the other two pieces together. The length of the original sheet of paper is

Sol. Answer is (d). The only three single digit odd prime numbers are 3, 5 and 7. So the length of the first piece = (3+ 5 + 7)/3 = 5. Now let the length of the second piece = X units.

Then by the condition given in question we have – Length of the third piece = X + 5. Length of the second piece = X = 5 + (X + 5)/3.

Solve this to get X = 10. So, length of the first piece = 5, second piece = 10 and third piece = 15. So length of the original sheet = 5 + 10 + 15 = 30 units. Ans.(d)

3. In the sequence 1, 5, 7, 3, 5, 7, 4, 3, 5, 7, how many such 5s are there which are not immediately preceded by 3 but are immediately followed by 7?

Sol. Answer is (a). In the given sequence 1, 5, 7, 3, 5, 7, 4, 3, 5, 7, there is only one such 5 that is not preceded immediately by 3, but immediately followed by 7. It is the one in bold – 1, 5, 7, 3, 5, 7, 4, 3, 5, 7.

4. A joint family consists of seven members A, B, C, D, E, F and G with three females. G is a widow and sister-in-law of D's father F. B and D are siblings and A is daughter of B. C is cousin of B. Who is E?

• Grandmother of A

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• 1 and 2 only
• 2 and 3 only
• 1 and 3 only

Sol. Answer is (d). All are correct – E is the wife of F, grandmother of A, and aunt of C. The information given in question can be interpreted by the diagram shown –

Hence answer is (d).

5. Each face of a cube can be painted in black or white colours. In how many different ways can the cube be painted?

Sol. Answer is (b). There are many cases possible. Basic assumption is that all faces are identical and not identified by different numbers.

Case I: All the faces are painted black. ONE case.

Case II: Five faces are painted black and one face is painted white. ONE case (Since cube is symmetrical figure on all its faces, that is why six cases will reduce to ONE)

Case III: Four faces are painted black and two faces is painted white. Two cases. First when the two white faces are on opposite faces and second when the two white faces are on adjacent faces.

Case IV: Three faces are painted black and three faces is painted white. Two cases. This can be done in two ways.

Case V: Two faces are painted black and four faces is painted white. Similar to case III. Two cases. First when the two white faces are on opposite faces and second when the two white faces are on adjacent faces.

Case VI: One face is painted black and five faces are painted white. Similar to case II. ONE case (Since cube is symmetrical figure on all its faces, that is why six cases will reduce to ONE)

Case VII: All the faces are painted white. ONE case.

So, total 1 + 1 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 1 + 1 = 10 cases are possible.

A simpler way to look at it will be –

0 sides White : 1 way (all sides Black)

1 side White : 1 way (all other sides Black)

2 sides White : 2 ways (1 way with adjacent sides White, and 1 way with opposite sides White)

3 sides White : 2 ways (1 way where three White sides have same corner, and 1 way where opposite sides are White and one center side is White)

4 sides White : 2 ways (same as 2 sides Black)

5 sides White : 1 way (same as 1 side Black)

6 sides White : 1 way (same as 0 sides Black)

So total=1+1+2+2+2+1+1 = 10 ways.

6. How many triplets (x, y, z) satisfy the equation x + y + z = 6, where x, y and z are natural numbers?

Sol. Answer is (d). x, y and z are natural numbers. So, x, y and z will be greater than zero. It also means that minimum 1 will be there at all places in (x, y, z).

So we can conclude that x' + y' + z' = 6 – (1 + 1 + 1) = 3, where x', y', and z' can take value 0 too.

Now this is a problem of distributing three objects at three places (i.e. with two partitions). This can be done in 5!/(3!×2!) = 10 ways.

The other, simpler way to do it is to manually check. We get 10 sets of triplets : (1,2,3), (1,3,2), (2,1,3), (2,3,1), (3,1,2), (3,2,1),(1,1,4), (1,4,1), (4,1,1), (2,2,2).

7. If $ means 'divided by'; @ means 'multiplied by'; # means 'minus', then the value of 10#5@1$5 is

Sol. Answer is (d). After changing the expression as per the conditions given in the question, we get 10#5@1$5 = 10 - 5 × 1 ÷ 5.

Using BODMAS, we first get 1 / 5 = 1/5. Then we get 5 x 1/5 = 1. Then we get 10 – 1 = 9. Hence, we have answer 9. Ans.(d)

8. An 8-digit number 4252746B leaves remainder 0 when divided by 3. How many values of B are possible?

Sol. Answer is (c). This is a question based on rules of divisibility. The rule of divisibility of 3 is that the sum of all the digits of the number should be divisible by 3. We have 4 + 2 + 5 + 2 + 7 + 4 + 6 + B = 30 + B, which is completely divisible by three. So B can take value as 0, 3, 6, or 9. Hence 4 values are possible for B. Ans.(c)

Directions for the following 3 (three) items: Read the following information and answer the three items that follow: Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared in several tests. Either C or F scores the highest. Whenever C scores the highest, then E scores the least. Whenever F scores the highest, B scores the least. In all the tests they got different marks; D scores higher than A, but they are close competitors; A scores higher than B; C scores higher than A. 9. If F stands second in the ranking, then the position of B is

10. If B scores the least, the rank of C will be

• Second or third

11. If E is ranked third, then which one of the following is correct?

• E gets more marks than C
• C gets more marks than E
• A is ranked fourth
• D is ranked fifth

Solution for Q. 9 to 11:

Let’s first number the conditions given in question. There are eight conditions in all.

i. Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared in several tests.

ii. Either C or F scores the highest.

iii. Whenever C scores the highest, then E scores the least.

iv. Whenever F scores the highest, B scores the least.

v. In all the tests they got different marks;

vi. D scores higher than A, but they are close competitors;

vii. A scores higher than B;

viii. C scores higher than A

Sol 9. Answer is (c). If F stands second, then by condition (ii), C will be first. If C is first (i.e., score highest) by condition (iii), E scores the least. And using conditions v, vi, vii and viii, we got the following order - C – F – D – A – B – E. Hence B stood fifth.

Sol 10. Answer is (d). B scores last means C is not on the first position (condition iii). So on the first position there must be F (condition ii). Now out of six positions first and last positions are fixed. F _ _ _ _ B.

The middle four positions will be filled by E, C, D and A. In which C, D and A will come in following order (conditions v, vi, vii and viii) – F _ C _ D _ A _ B In this arrangement E can occupy four positions. In every case C can be either occupy second or third place. Ans.(d)

Sol 11. Answer is (b). E is ranked third, it means it is not ranked last, it means C is not first, it means F is first, it means B is last (using conditions given in question). So we have following arrangement -

F _ E _ _ B

Now by using conditions v to viiii we have final order –

F C E D A B

Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Read the following statements SI and S2 and answer the two items that follow: S1: Twice the weight of Sohan is less than the weight of Mohan or that of Rohan. S2: Twice the weight of Rohan is greater than the weight of Mohan or that of Sohan. 12. Which one of the following statements is correct?

• Weight of Mohan is greatest
• Weight of Sohan is greatest
• Weight of Rohan is greatest
• Whose weight is greatest' cannot be determined

13. Which one of the following statements is correct?

• Weight of Mohan is least
• Weight of Sohan is least
• Weight of Rohan is least
• 'Whose weight is least' cannot be determined

Solution for Q. 12 to 13:

Sol 12. Answer is (d).

Let weight of Sohan = S, weight of Mohan = M and weight of Rohan = R.

Then by the condition given we have :

2S < M, even double of S is less than M. So, S < M.

2S < R, even double of S is less than R. So S < R.

So, we can conclude that S is less than M and R. But we do not know the order relation between M and R. Again, 2R > M, means either R = M or R > M or R < M. So we cannot conclude relation between R and M.

2R > S is obvious as we have concluded R > S above. So not give any fruitful information. Ans.(d)

Sol 13. Answer is (b). It is clear that weight of Sohan is least.

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following five passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Passage — 1 India's economic footprint, given its population, still remains small compared to the US, the European Union or China. It has much to learn from other economies, yet must implement solutions that fit its unique circumstances. India especially needs an effective long-term regulatory system based on collaboration rather than the ' current top-down approach. Regulations seek desirable outcomes yet are repeatedly used as political tools to push one agenda or another. Often, regulations fail to consider impacts on jobs and economic growth — or less restrictive alternatives. Regulations may be used to protect local markets at the expense of more widely shared prosperity in the future. Additionally, regulations inevitably result in numerous unintended consequences. In today's hyper competitive global economy, regulations need to be viewed as "weapons" that seek cost-justified social and environmental benefits while improving the economic well-being of most citizens. 14. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial inference that can be derived from the above passage ?

• A better regulatory system will help India achieve the size of economy appropriate to its population.
• In a competitive global economy, India must use regulations strategically.
• Regulations in India do not favour its integration with today's hyper competitive global economy.
• Job creation and economic growth should be dominant considerations in developing India's regulatory system.

15. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :

In today's global economy,

• regulations are not effectively used to protect local markets.
• social and environmental concerns are generally ignored by the governments across the world while implementing the regulations.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?

• Both 1 and 2
• Neither 1 nor 2

Solution for Q. 14 to 15:

Sol 14. Answer is (a). Option (c) is not the main inference being drawn. It is one of the discussed issues, but that’s it. Option (d) is also one of the issues discussed, but not the main inference we can derive. Option (b) comes close to being the most logical inference, but option (a) is the best. Why? The passage started with the idea of economic size of India. Then it went on to discuss the problems of regulatory system(s) in India. So, (a) is better than (b).

Sol 15. Answer is (a). The first assumption is valid (at least for India, as per the passage) because it is mentioned that “…regulations may be used to protect local markets at the expense of …”. So, regulations are not being used effectively, while being deployed to protect local markets.

The second assumption seems wrong as the last part of the para tells us the opposite – governments focusing more on social and environmental concerns than economic ones (the balance is missing). So 2 is wrong.

Hence 1 only (option (a)) seems correct.

Passage — 2 In a study, scientists compared the microbiomes of poorly nourished and well nourished infants and young children. Gut microbes were isolated from faecal samples of malnourished and healthy children. The microbiome was "immature" and less diverse in malnourished children compared to the better developed "mature" microbiome found in healthy children of the same age. According to some studies, the chemical composition of mother's milk has shown the presence of a modified sugar (sialylated oligosaccharides). This is not utilized by the baby for its own nutrition. However, the bacteria constituting the infant's microbiome thrive on this sugar which serves as their food. Malnourished mothers have low levels of this sugar in their milk. Consequently, the microbiomes of their infants fail to mature. That in turn, leads to malnourished babies. 16. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial inference that can be derived from the above passage ?

• If malnourished condition in children is caused by gut bacteria, it cannot be treated.
• The guts of malnourished babies should be inoculated with mature microbiomes.
• Babies of malnourished mothers should be fed with dairy milk fortified with sialylated oligosaccharides instead of mother's milk.
• Research on benign effects of gut bacteria on nutrition has policy implications.

17. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :

• Processed probiotic foods are a solution to treat the children suffering from malnutrition due to immature gut bacteria composition.
• The babies of malnourished mothers generally tend to be' malnourished. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

Solution for Q. 16 to 17:

Sol 16. Answer is (c). Option (a) is wrong. If the cause is found, treatment is possible. Option (b) seems too far-fetched, and is not mentioned anywhere (inoculation etc.)

Option (a) is wrong. If the cause is found, treatment is possible. Option (b) seems too far-fetched, and is not mentioned anywhere (inoculation etc.) Option (c) sounds good, if it would be technically correct (that we do not know from the passage). The problem with it is “…instead of mother’s milk”. Option (d) also sounds correct. It is a logical, rational and crucial inference regarding policy choices to be made regarding nutrition etc. But the problem is that the passage has zero hint about “policy choices at government or administrative levels” to be made. It is a pure science-related passage only. Hence, we choose option (c) over (d).

Sol 17. Answer is (c). Assumption 1 sounds correct as it will help make up for the early year problems due to improper nourishment via mother’s milk. Assumption 2 is clearly valid as seen in the passage (the last two sentences).

Passage — 3 Temperatures have risen nearly five times as rapidly on the Western Antarctic Peninsula than the global average over the past five decades. Researchers have now found that melting glaciers are causing a loss of species diversity among benthos in the coastal waters off the Antarctic Peninsula, Impacting an entire seafloor ecosystem. They Believe increased levels of suspended sediment in water to be the cause of the dwindling biodiversity in the coastal region. 18. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been Made :

• Regions of glaciers warm faster than other regions due to global warming.
• Global warming can lead to seafloor sedimentation in some areas.
• Melting glaciers can reduce marine biodiversity in some areas.

Sol. Answer is (c). All three assumptions seem to be valid.

Passage — 4 A research team examined a long-term owl roost. Owls prey on small mammals and the excreted remains of those meals that accumulated over the time, provide us an insight into the composition and structure of small mammals over the past 'millennia. The research suggested that when the Earth went through a period of rapid warming about 13,000 years ago, the small mammal community was stable and resilient. But, from the last quarter of the nineteenth century, human-made changes to the environment had caused an enormous drop in biomass and energy flow. This dramatic decline in energy flow means modern ecosystems are not adapting as easily as they did in the past. 19. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :

• Global warming is a frequently occurring natural phenomenon.
• The impending global warming will not adversely affect small mammals.
• Humans are responsible for the loss of the Earth's natural resilience.

Sol. Answer is (b). Assumption 1 cannot be made on the basis of this para, as only one example is cited. So options (a) and (d) are ruled out. Assumption 2 is clearly wrong, as the reverse is cited. So option (c) is ruled out. Hence, (b) is correct. Assumption 3 is mentioned in the para.

Passage — 5 Food varieties extinction is happening all over the world --- and it is happening fast. For example, of the 7,000 apple varieties that were grown during the nineteenth century, fewer than o hundred remain. In the Philippines, thousands of varieties of rice once thrived; now only up to a hundred are grown there. In China, 90 percent of the wheat varieties cultivated just a century ago have disappeared. Farmers in the past painstakingly bred and developed crops well suited to the peculiarities of their local climate and environment. In the recent past, our heavy dependence on a few high yielding varieties and technology-driven production and distribution of food is causing the dwindling of diversity in food crops. If some mutating crop disease or future climate change decimates the few crop plants we have come to depend on to feed our growing population, we might desperately need some of those varieties we have let go extinct. 20. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :

• Humans have been the main reason for the large scale extinction of plant species.
• Consumption of food mainly from locally cultivated crops ensures crop diversity.
• The present style of production and distribution of food will finally lead to the problem of food scarcity in the near future.
• Our food security may depend on our ability to preserve the locally cultivated varieties of crops.

Which of the above assumptions are valid ?

Sol. Answer is (a). If you check assumption 3, it is not necessarily valid always, but only when a crisis (mutating crop disease or future climate change) happens. Hence, eliminate options (a) and (c). Assumption 1 talks about “extinction of plant species” but the passage is about “food varieties”. Assumption 2 is surely correct. So 2 and 4 are right, and answer is option (b).

21. What is X in the sequence 132, 129, 124, 117, 106, 93, X ?

Sol. Answer is (c). The series is reducing by 3, 5, 7, 11, 13 ... i.e., by prime numbers starting with 3. So, the next prime will be 17. The value of X will be 93 – 17 = 76. Ans.(c)

22. A wall clock moves 10 minutes fast in every 24 hours. The clock was set right to show the correct time at 8:00 a.m. on Monday. When the clock shows the time 6:00 p.m. on Wednesday, what is the correct time ?

Sol. Answer is (a). In 24 hours, the correct clock moves 24 × 60 = 1440 minutes, but the incorrect clock will move 1440 + 10 = 1450 min. So now we have basic relation between the correct and incorrect clock that IN THE TIME CORRECT CLOCK MOVES 1440 MINUTES, INCORRECT CLOCK MOVES 1450 MINUTES.

Now by the condition given in question the INCORRECT clock has moved 24 + 24 + 10 = 58 hours (i.e. 58×60 minutes).

If the INCORRECT clocks moves 1450 minutes, CORRECT clock moves 1440 minutes.

If the INCORRECT clock moves 1 minute, CORRECT clock moves 1440/1450 minutes.

But in our case INCORRECT clock has moved 58 hrs × 60 min /hr = 3480 minutes.

So, if the INCORRECT clock moved 3480 minutes, the correct clock will have moved (1440×3480)/1450 = 3456 minutes.

Converting 3456 min into hours we have 3456/60 = 573/5 or 57 hours 36 minutes. Ans.(a)

23. If the numerator and denominator of a proper fraction are increased by the same positive quantity which is greater than zero, the resulting fraction is

• always less than the original fraction
• always greater than the original fraction
• always equal to the original fraction
• such that nothing can be claimed definitely

Sol. Answer is (d). We know the basic property of ratios that if Numerator < Denominator (which is the case of proper fraction), then the new fraction is greater than the original one if same positive quantity is added to both numerator and denominator.

That is, a/b<(a+x)/(b+x) .

But in above case we do not whether the fraction is positive or negative. If it is positive, then the answer will be different from when it will be negative. Hence we can't say anything. Ans.(d)

24. What is X in the sequence 4, 196, 16, 144, 36, 100, 64, X ?

Sol. Answer is (b). The series can be seen as 4 (=2 2 ), 196 (=14 2 ), 16 (=4 2 ), 144 (=12 2 ), 36 (=6 2 ), 100 (=10 2 ), 64 (=8 2 ), X (? 2 ).

Now observe every alternate term, value of X will be square of 8 i.e., 64. Ans.(b)

25. In a group of 15 people; 7 can read French, 8 can read English while 3 of them can read neither of these two languages. The number of people who can read exactly one language is

Sol. Answer is (b).

This is a question from Set Theory. In a group of 15 people 3 cannot read any of two languages.

So, n(A ∪ B) = 12, n(A) = 7, n(B) = 8. And we have n(A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A ∩ B) By putting the values, we have 12 = 7 + 8 - n(A ∩ B).

So, n(A ∩ B) = 3.

So, total number of people who can read exactly one language = (7 - 3) + (8 - 3) = 4 + 5 = 9. Following Venn Diagram can help you understand the case -

26. A printer numbers the pages of a book starting with 1 and uses 3089 digits in all. How many pages does the book have ?

Sol. Answer is (c).

Digits required to print one digit numbers (1 to 9) = 9×1 = 9

Digits required to print two digit numbers (10 to 99) = 90 × 2 = 180

Digits required to print three digit numbers (100 to 999) = 900 × 3 = 2700.

So, upto 999 pages we have 2700 + 180 + 9 = 2889 digits.

Now from here onwards each number will use 4 digits and we are remaining with 3089 - 2889 = 200 digits.

So 200/4 = 50 more numbers are there. i.e., 999 + 50 = 1049 pages in the book. Ans.(c)

27. Consider the following sequence that follows some arrangement : c_accaa_aa_bc_b The letters that appear in the gaps are

Sol. Answer is (b). There are 15 characters in the sequence. So we should find sequences of 5 characters each in it. By applying the options given, we find that correct sequence is ccacc aabaa bbcbb when we use option (b) – c-b-b-b.

28. A family has two children along with their parents. The average of the weights of the children and their mother is 50 kg. The average of the weights of the children and their father is 52 kg. If the weight of the father is 60 kg, then what is the weight of the mother?

Sol. Answer is (d). We know that – Average x Number of people = Total.

Average of weight of two children and their mother (i.e. total 3 members) = 50. So, the sum of the weight of two children and mother = C1 + C2 + M = 50 × 3 = 150 ... (1) (where C1 and C2 are the weights of two children and M is the weight of the Mother)

Again if the weight of the Father is F, we have C1 + C2 + F = 52 × 3 = 156 ... (2)

Now it is given that the weight of the father = F = 60.

By putting this value in equation (2), we have C1 + C2 = 156 - 60 = 96.

Again by using equation (1) we have M = 150 - 96 = 54 kg.

(If you do not want to solve this way, you can always reverse check using options also, in such questions. Since option (4) was correct, you will need to check 3 options at least).

29. Suppose you have sufficient amount of rupee currency in three denominations : Rs. 1, Rs. 10 and Rs. 50. In how many different ways can you pay a bill of Rs. 107 ?

Case I: We use TWO Rs. 50 notes - One possibility - 50(×2) + 1(×7) = 107

Case II: We use ONE Rs. 50 note -

Six possibilities (by adding Rs.10 note from none to five) –

50(×1) + 10(×0) + 1(×47) = 107; 50(×1) + 10(×1) + 1(×47) = 107; 50(×1) + 10(×2) + 1(×37) =

107; 50(×1) + 10(×3) + 1(×27) = 107; 50(×1) + 10(×4) + 1(×17) = 107; 50(×1) + 10(×5) + 1(×7) = 107;

Case III: We use no Rs. 50 note (Only Rs. 10 and 1 notes) - Ten possibilities –

10(×10) + 1(×7) = 107; 10(×9) + 1(×17) = 107; 10(×8) + 1(×27) = 107; 10(×7) + 1(×37) = 107; 10(×6) + 1(×47) = 107; 10(×5) + 1(×57) = 107; 10(×4) + 1(×67) = 107; 10(×3) + 1(×77) = 107; 10(×2) + 1(×87) = 107; 10(×1) + 1(×97) = 107;

Case IV: We use only Rs. 1 note - One possibility - 1 (×107) = 107.

So, total 18 possibilities.

30. 'A' started from his house and walked 20 m towards East, where his friend B joined him. They together walked 10 m in the same direction. Then 'A' turned left while 'B' turned right and travelled 2 m and 8 m respectively. Again 'B' turned left to travel 4 m followed by 5 m to his right to reach his office. 'A' turned right and travelled 12 m to reach his office. What is the shortest distance between the two offices?

Shortest Distance = Hypotenuse = √(〖15〗^2+8^2 )=√(225+64)=√289=17.

31. Consider two statements S1 and S2 followed by a question: S1: p and q both are prime numbers. S2: p + q is an odd integer. Question: Is pq an odd integer? Which one of the following is correct ?

• S1 alone is sufficient to answer the question
• S2 alone is sufficient to answer the question
• Both S1 and S2 taken together are not sufficient to answer the question
• Both S1 and S2 are necessary to answer the question

Sol. Answer is (d).

Consider following rules -

1. odd × odd = odd; 2. odd×even = even; 3. even × even = even; 4. odd + odd = even; 5. even + even = even and 6. even + odd = odd.

By above rules p×q = even, if both p and q are even or they form a pair of odd and even numbers and p×q = odd, if p and q both are odd.

Statement I: Information given is not sufficient as in a set of prime number two numbers can be even and odd (for example 2 and 3) or odd and odd (for example 3 and 5). So, p×q can be even or odd.

Statement II: Information given is not sufficient as it is not known that whether p and q are integers are not. They may be fractions.

By combining statements I and II: we have p and q as prime number and there sum is odd. So, the two prime numbers should be one even and one odd. So now we have that one is even and one is odd. In this case p×q will always be even. So we can answer the question that No, p×q is not an odd integer. Ans.(d)

32. Which year has the same calendar as that of 2009?

Sol. Answer is (d). To have the same calendar two things should be matched. First – the first day of the year and second – the year type i.e., ordinary or leap. Let the first day of year 2009 is X day. It means first day of 2010 will be X+1 day, as there is one odd day in one ordinary year.

It means first day of 2011 will be X+2 day. (As there is one odd day in one ordinary year)

It means first day of 2012 will be X+3 day. (As there is one odd day in one ordinary year)

It means first day of 2013 will be X+5 day. (As there are TWO odd days in one LEAP year)

It means first day of 2014 will be X+6 day. (As there is one odd day in one ordinary year); and

It means first day of 2015 will be X+7 day. (As there is one odd day in one ordinary year)

After every 7 days, the same day appears. So, the first day of 2015 will be same as 2009.

Since both are ordinary years. We can use the calendar of 2009 in 2015. Ans.(d)

33. Number 136 is added to 5B7 and the sum obtained is 7A3, where A and B are integers. It is given that 7A3 is exactly divisible by 3. The only possible value of B is

Sol. Answer is (d). It is given 136 + 5B7 = 7A3.

Add the unit’s numbers to get 6 + 7 = 13. So, carry over 1.

=> 1 + 3 + B = 1A => 1 + 3 + B = 10 + A => B – A = 6.

Which means if A = 0, B = 6; if A = 1, B = 7, if A = 2, B = 8 and if A = 3, B = 9.

But given 7A3 is completely divisible by 3. So, as per rules of divisibility, 7 + A + 3 = 10 + A should also be completely divisible by 3.

So the possible values of A are 2, 5 and 8. (12 / 15 / 18 divisible by 3) Out of these, only 2 satisfies both the conditions so A = 2, so B = 8. Ans.(d)

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following six passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Passage — 1 What stands in the way of the widespread and careful adoption of 'Genetic Modification (GM)' technology is an `Intellectual Property Rights' regime that seeks to create private monopolies for such technologies. If GM technology is largely corporate driven, it seeks to maximize profits and that too in the short run. That is why corporations make major investments for herbicide-tolerant and pest-resistant crops. Such properties have only a short window, as soon enough, pests and weeds will evolve to overcome such resistance. This suits the corporations. The National Farmers Commission pointed out that priority must be given in genetic modification to the incorporation of genes that can help impart resistance to drought, salinity and other stresses. 34. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the above passage?

• Public research institutions should take the lead in GM technology and prioritise the technology agenda.
• Developing countries should raise this issue in WTO and ensure the abolition of Intellectual Property Rights.
• Private corporations should not be allowed to do agribusiness in India, particularly the seed business.
• Present Indian circumstances do not favour the cultivation of genetically modified crops.

35. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

• The issue of effects of natural calamities on agriculture is not given due consideration by GM technology companies.
• In the long run, GM technology will not be able to solve agricultural problems arising due to global warming.

Solution for Q. 34 to 35:

Sol 34. Answer is (a). Option (b) is not relevant to this passage. Option (c) is an extreme, and is not stated thus, in the passage. Option (d) is wrong, as the passage indicates otherwise (last part). Best answer is option (a), as the passage criticizes the approach of private corporations, and indicates what India really needs (which private firms won’t do, and hence only public enterprises can or have to).

Sol 35. Answer is (a). Assumption 1 is correct, as that is clearly mentioned in the passage. Assumption 2 is too broad, as it assumes that GM technology will “never” be able to do it, which may be wrong. Hence, option (a) is best.

Passage — 2 Most invasive species are neither terribly successful nor very harmful. Britain's invasive plants are not widespread, not spreading especially quickly, and often less of a nuisance than vigorous natives such as bracken. The arrival of new species almost always increases biological diversity in a region; in many cases, a flood of newcomers drives no native species to extinction. One reason is that invaders tend to colonise disturbed habitats like polluted lakes and post-industrial wasteland, where little else lives. They are nature's opportunists. 36. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

• Invasive species should be used to rehabilitate desert areas and wastelands of a country.
• Laws against the introduction of foreign plants are unnecessary.
• Sometimes, the campaigns against foreign plants are pointless.
• Foreign plants should be used to increase the biodiversity of a country.

Sol. Answer is (a). Option (d) uses the term “foreign plants” which makes in unsuitable. Same holds for options (b) and (c) too.

Option (d) uses the term “foreign plants” which makes in unsuitable. Same holds for options (b) and (c) too. Hence, option (a) is best, which is correct also as per the passage. Even if we do not use this logic (trick), option (b) is too extreme as in some cases we may need such laws. Option (c) is not the most logical inference (due to “sometimes”). Option (d) seems a strange way to go about it (we should rather protect our own indigenous biodiversity than destroy it). Hence (a) is best.

Passage — 3 Diarrhoeal deaths among Indian children are mostly due to food and water contamination. Use of contaminated groundwater and unsafe chemicals in agriculture, poor hygiene in storage and handling of food items to food cooked and distributed in unhygienic surroundings; there are myriad factors that need regulation and monitoring. People need to have awareness of adulteration and ways of complaining to the relevant authorities. Surveillance of food-borne diseases involves a number of government agencies and entails good training of inspection staff. Considering the proportion of the urban population that depends on street food for its daily meals, investing in training and education of street vendors is of great significance. 37. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

• Food safety is a complex issue that calls for a multipronged solution.
• Great investments need to be made in developing the manpower for surveillance and training.
• India needs to make sufficient legislation for governing food processing industry.

Sol. Answer is (c). Assumption 2 uses “Great investments need to be made …”. That is not clear from the passage. So, we eliminate 2. Hence, options (a) and (d) are wrong. Now, assumption 1 is definitely correct (start of the passage). Hence best answer is option (c).

Passage — 4 The interests of working and poor people have historically been neglected in the planning of our cities. Our cities are increasingly intolerant,', unsafe and unlivable places for large numbers of citizens and yet we continue to plan via the old ways — the static Development Plan — that draws exclusively from technical expertise, distanced from people's live experiences and needs, and actively excluding large number of people, places, activities and practices that are an integral part of the city. 38. The passage seems to argue

• against the monopoly of builders and the interests of elite groups.
• against the need for global and smart cities.
• in favour of planning cities mainly for working class and poor people.
• in favour of participation of peoples' groups in city planning.

Sol. Answer is (d). Options (a) and (b) are clearly wrong. Option (c) is not wrong, as that is one logic given right at the start. But option (d) is best as it covers option (c) as well. If we start involving peoples’ groups in city planning, then automatically we will have the interests of working class and poor people taken care of. In fact, much more than that is possible then.

Passage — 5 A vast majority of Indians are poor, with barely 10 percent employed in the organised sector. We are being convinced that vigorous economic growth is generating substantial employment. But this is not so. When our economy was growing at 3 percent per year, employment in the organised sector was growing at 2 percent per year. As the economy began to grow at 7 - 8 percent per year, the rate of growth of employment in the organised sector actually declined to 1 percent per year. 39. The above passage seems to imply that

• most of modern economic growth is based on technological progress.
• much of modern Indian economy does not nurture sufficient symbiotic relationship with labour-intensive, natural resource-based livelihoods.
• service sector in India is not very labour-intensive.
• literate rural population is not willing to enter organised sector.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• 3 and 4 only
• 1, 2 and 3 only
• 1, 2, 3 and 4

Sol. Answer is (a). Statement 4 is not mentioned anywhere. So, options (b) and (d) are ruled out. Now check statement 3. It is a big assumption we need to make to equate service sector with organized sector keeping in mind the growth of economy coming largely from services. That is nowhere mentioned in the passage. Hence, 3 is not correct. Hence, option (c) is ruled out. Hence, (a) is best.

Passage — 6 India has banking correspondents, who help bring people in the hinterland into the banking fold. For them to succeed, banks cannot crimp on costs. They also cannot afford to ignore investing in financial education and literacy. Banking correspondents are way too small to be viewed as a systemic risk. Yet India's banking regulator has restricted them to serving only one bank, perhaps to prevent arbitrage.'Efforts at banking outreach may succeed only if there are better incentives at work for such last-mile workers and also those providers who ensure not just basic bank accounts but also products such as accident and life insurance and micro pension schemes. 40. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial inference that can be derived from the above passage?

• Efforts to bring people in India's hinterland into the banking system are not successful.
• For meaningful financial inclusion, India's banking system needs more number of banking correspondents and other such last-mile workers.
• Meaningful financial inclusion in India requires that banking correspondents have diverse skills
• Better banking outreach would be impossible unless each banking correspondent is allowed to serve a number of banks

Sol. Answer is (d). Option (c) is clearly wrong as focus is not on the skills of the banking correspondents. Option (a) is also wrong as that conclusion has not been drawn anywhere in this passage. Between options (b) and (d), option (d) is better as that is the core problem being discussed.

41. The number of times the digit 5 will appear while writing the integers from 1 to 1000 is

Sol. Answer is (b). From 1 to 1000, the numbers in which 5 can occur could be of one digit, two digits or three digits.

Case I – If the number is of one digit – 5 will appear only one time, i.e. in 5.

Case II – If the number is of two digits – then

(a) There is only one 5, this can happen in two ways _5 and 5_. In the first case (_5) the blank Place can be filled in 8 ways(as 0 and 5 cannot appear at that place), while in the second case (5_) the blank place can be filled in 9 ways (5 cannot appear there). Total 9 + 8 = 17 ways.

(b) There are two 5s. In this case only ONE possibility.

Case III – If the number is of three digits – then

(a) Only one 5. Then, 5 can occupy three positions. 5 _ _ or _ 5 _ or _ _ 5. In the first case (5_ _), remaining two positions can be filled in 9 way each. So total 9 × 9 = 81 possibilities. In the second case (_ 5 _) first position can be filled in 8 ways and last position can be filled in 9 ways. So total 9 × 8 = 72 possibilities. Same will be true for the third (_ _ 5) case. So total 72 possibilities.

(b) Only two 5. This can be done in three ways 55_ or 5_5 or _55. In first (55_) and second (5_5) case it can be filled in 9 ways each. While in the third case (_55) it can be filled in 8 ways. So total 9 + 9 + 8 = 26 possibilities.

(c) All three digits are 5. This can be done in only ONE way. i.e, 555.

So, total = 1 + 17 + 1 + 81 + 72 + 72 + 26 + 1 = 271. Ans.(b)

42. A solid cube is painted yellow, blue and black such that opposite faces are of same colour. The cube is then cut into 36 cubes of two different sizes such that 32 cubes are small and the other four cubes are Big. None of the faces of the bigger cubes is painted blue. How many cubes have only one face painted?

Sol. Answer is (c). By the condition described in the question the cube can be divided as shown below. For the sake of simplicity, let the side of original cube be 12 units. So the new structure is as shown in image. Our desired cubes are marked with R. So a total of 4 and 4 = 8 cubes will have only one face painted.

43. A and B are two heavy steel blocks. If B is placed on the top of A, the weight increases by 60%. How much weight will reduce with respect to the total weight of A and B, if B is removed from the top of A?

Sol. Answer is (d). Let the weight of A be 100 kg.

So, the combined weight of A + B will 160 kg. Out of this 160 kg, 60 kg is reduced now.

So problem now becomes “60 is what percent of 160?” So, 60×100/160 = 37.5%. Ans.(d)

44. Mr 'X' has three children. The birthday of the first child falls on the 5th Monday of April, that of the second one falls on the 5th Thursday of November. On which day is the birthday of his third child, which falls on 20th December?

Sol. Answer is (b). November is a 30-day month. In a 30-day month, all the seven days of week occur 4 times (7 × 4 = 28) and two days of the week occur 5 times. These two days will be the first two or the last two days of the month. It means if a certain day is occurring 5 times in a month, it must be on those first two or last two days. Now the second child’s birthday is on the fifth Thursday, so it has to be in the end of November.

That means either 29 November is Thursday or 30 November is Thursday.

If 29 November is Thursday then, December 20 will be a Thursday.

If 30 November is Thursday then, December 20 will be Wednesday. This is not given in the options. Hence, answer has to a Thursday. Ans.(b)

45. Consider the following Statements and Conclusions: Statements:

• Some rats are cats.
• Some cats are dogs.
• No dog is a cow.

Conclusions:

• No cow is a cat.
• No dog is a rat.
• Some cats are rats.

Which of the above conclusions is/are drawn from the statements?

• I, II and III
• Only I and II
• Only II and III

Sol. Answer is (c). The conclusion of 'Some rats are cats' is 'Some cats are rats'. So conclusion III is valid. No conclusion can be drawn in terms of rats and dogs as statement I and II both are starting with 'some'. So, conclusion II is not valid. That eliminates all options but (c).

The only conclusion in terms of cat and cow will be 'Some cats are not cows'. So conclusion I is not valid. Ans.(c).

46. The number of parallelograms that can be formed from a set of four parallel lines intersecting another set of four parallel lines, is

In the diagram, let’s count the parallelograms one by one.

Case I - Parallelograms of 1 × 1 (ABFE type) - ABFE, BCGF, CDHG, EFJI, FGKJ, GHLK, IJNM, JKON, KLPO – total 9.

Case II - Parallelograms of 1 × 2 (ACGE type) - ACGE, BDFH, EGKI, FHLJ, IKOM, JLPN – total 6.

Case III - Parallelogram of 2 × 1 (ABJI type) - ABJI, EFNM, BCKJ, FGON, CDLK, GHPO – total 6.

Case IV - Parallelograms of 1 × 3 (ADHE type) - ADHE, EHLI, ILPM – total 3.

Case V - Parallelograms of 3 × 1 (ABNM type) - ABNM, BCON, CDPO – total 3.

Case VI - Parallelograms of 2 × 2 (ACKI type) - ACKI, BDLJ, EGOM, FHPN – total 4.

Case VII - Parallelograms of 3 × 2 (ADLI type) - ADLI, EHPM – total 2.

Case VIII - Parallelograms of 2 × 3 (ACOM type) - ACOM, BDPN – total 2.

Case IX - Parallelograms of 3 × 3 (ADPM type) – ADPM – total 1.

A much shorter method is by using permutations and combinations.

Select any two of the first set of 4 lines. That can be done in 4C2 ways.

Now select any two of the second set of 4 lines. That can also be done in 4C2 ways.

So the total number of ways of doing it = 4C2 x 4C2 = 6 x 6 = 36 ways. Ans. (d)

47. In a school every student is assigned a unique identification number. A student is a football player if and only if the identification number is divisible by 4, whereas a student is a cricketer if and only if the identification number is divisible by 6. If every number from 1 to 100 is assigned to a student, then how many of them play cricket as well as football?

Sol. Answer is (b). The required number should be completely divisible by both 4 and 6. That means it should be divisible by LCM of 4 and 6, which is 12. Such 8 numbers are possible which are completely divisible by 12. They are 12, 24, 36, 48, 60, 72, 84 and 96. Ans.(b)

48. When a runner was crossing the 12 km mark, she was informed that she had completed only 80% of the race. How many kilometres was the runner supposed to run in this event?

Sol. Answer is (b). This can be solved mentally. 12 km is 8/10 = 4/5 of the whole race. So whole race must be 15 km.

In this question 12 km is 80% of the total race.

=> 12 km = 0.8 R => R = 12 / 0.8 = 15.

So total race will be of 15 km. Ans.(b)

49. Raju has Rs. 9000 with him and he wants to buy a mobile handset; but he finds that he has only 75% of the amount required to buy the handset. Therefore, he borrows 2000 from a friend. Then

• Raju still does not have enough amount to buy the handset.
• Raju has exactly the same amount as required to buy the handset.
• Raju has enough amount to buy the handset and he will have 500 with him after buying the handset.
• Raju has enough amount to buy the handset and he will have 1000 with him after buying the handset.

Sol. Answer is (a). In this question Rs. 9000 is 75% of the cost of mobile phone. So total cost of mobile phone is Rs. 12000 ( = 9000 / 0.75). Now, as he borrows Rs. 2000, he will be still short of Rs.1000 to buy the phone. Ans.(a)

50. In 2002, Meenu's age was one-third of the age of Meera, whereas in 2010, Meenu's age was half the age of Meera. What is Meenu's year of birth?

Sol. Answer is (b). Let Meenu’s age in 2002 be M and Meera’s age in 2002 be X.

In 2002, Meenu = 1/3 of Meera. => M = X/3

In 2010, Meenu = 1/2 of Meera. So, M + 8 = (X + 8) / 2

Solving these two, we get M = 8. So, in 2002, Meenu was 8 years old. So she was born in 1994.

[ You can easily reverse verify it with the options also now. If Meenu was born in 1994, then in 2002 she was 8 years old, and Meera was 24 yrs old. Then in 2010, Meenu would be 16 yrs old, and Meera should be 32 yrs old (and also twice that of Meenu, which she is now). Hence checked. ]

51. Rakesh and Rajesh together bought 10 balls and 10 rackets. Rakesh spent 1300 and Rajesh spent 1500. If each racket costs three times a ball does, then what is the price of a racket?

Let the cost of each ball is Rs. X. Then cost of each racket will be 3X.

Cost of 10 balls = 10X, and cost of 10 rackets = 30X.

So total cost = 10X + 30X = 40X.

By the condition given in question, we have

40X = 1300 + 1500 or 40X = 2800 or X = 70. Price of each racket = Rs. 210. Ans.(c)

52. In a conference, out of a total 100 participants, 70 are Indians. If 60 of the total participants are vegetarian, then which of the following statements is/are correct?

• At least 30 Indian participants are vegetarian.
• At least 10 Indian participants are non-vegetarian.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Sol. Answer is (c). Let’s try to maximise the number of Indian-Vegetarians. Out of 70 Indians, all vegetarians (i.e, 60) can be Indians. So, at least 10 Indians will be there who will be non-vegetarians. This number can increase depending on the number of vegetarian-Indians.

Let’s try to minimise the number of Indian-Vegetarians. For that we have maximise the number ofnon-Indian-Vegetarians. Out of 30 Non-Indians, at max all can be vegetarian. Still 30 vegetarians remain which will fall under Indian category. So, at least 30 Indians will be there who will be vegetarians. Hence both statements are correct. Ans.(c)

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items : Read the following seven passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Passage — 1 Political theorists no doubt have to take history of injustice, for example, untouchability, seriously. The concept of historical injustice takes note of a variety of historical wrongs that continue into the present in some form or the other and tend to resist repair. Two reasons might account for resistance to repair. One, not only are the roots of injustice buried deep in history, injustice itself constitutes economic structures of exploitation, ideologies of discrimination and modes of representation. Two, the category of historical injustice generally extends across a number of wrongs such as economic deprivation, social discrimination and lack of recognition. This category is complex, not only because of the overlap between a number of wrongs, but because one or the other wrong, generally discrimination, tends to acquire partial autonomy from others. This is borne out by the history of repair in India. 53. What is the main idea that we can infer from the passage ?

• Untouchability in India has not been taken seriously by political theorists.
• Historical injustice is inevitable in any society and is always beyond repair.
• Social discrimination and deprivation have their roots in bad economies.
• It is difficult, if not impossible, to repair every manifestation of historical injustice.

54. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :

• Removal of economic discrimination leads to removal of social discrimination.
• Democratic polity is the best way to repair historical wrongs.
• Neither 1 nor 2.

Solution for Q. 53 to 54:

Sol 53. Answer is (d). Option (b) is clearly ruled out due to “… beyond repair”. The passage nowhere mentions that. Option (c) is not mentioned in this fashion. Option (a) sounds correct, but is not our choice because the first statement can also mean that political theorists have taken it seriously. Option (d) is the best.

Sol 54. Answer is (d). The passage clearly says that historical injustice spans across many categories like economic deprivation, social discrimination and lack of recognition. So assumption 1 is not necessarily right. Assumption 2 is not explicitly stated anywhere. Hence both are invalid.

Passage — 2 Education plays a great transformatory role in life, particularly so in this rapidly changing and globalizing world. Universities are the custodians of the intellectual capital and promoters of culture and specialized knowledge. Culture is an activity of thought, and receptiveness to beauty and human feelings. A merely well informed man is only a bore on God's earth. What we should aim at is producing men who possess both culture and expert knowledge. Their expert knowledge will give them a firm ground to start from and their culture will lead them as deep as philosophy and as high as art. Together it will impart meaning to human existence. 55. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :

• A society without well educated people cannot be transformed into a modern society.
• Without acquiring culture, a person's education is not complete.

Sol. Answer is (c). In assumption 1, we are assuming that “Well Educated” means those with knowledge as well as culture. Then it is correct. Assumption 2 is definitely correct, as it is mentioned clearly.

Passage — 3 Soil, in which nearly all our food grows, is a living resource that takes years to form. Yet it can vanish in minutes. Each year 75 billion tonnes of fertile soil is lost to erosion. That is alarming — and not just for food producers. Soil can trap huge quantities of carbon dioxide in the form of organic carbon and prevent it from escaping into the atmosphere. 56. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :

• Large scale soil erosion is a major reason for widespread food insecurity in the world.
• Soil erosion is mainly anthropogenic.
• Sustainable management of soils helps in combating climate change.

Sol. Answer is (b). Assumption 1 is wrong as the link between soil erosion and food insecurity is not established in the passage. The word “alarming” does not mean that food insecurity has already arrived. Assumption 2 is incorrect. It is not mentioned anywhere in the passage that man is responsible for soil erosion. Assumption 3 is surely correct as borne out by the last line.

Passage — 4 Inequality is visible, even statistically measurable in many instances, but the economic power that drives it is invisible and not measurable... Like the force of gravity, power is the organising principle of inequality, be it of income, or wealth, gender, race, religion and region. Its effects are seen in a pervasive manner in all spheres, but the ways in which economic power pulls and tilts visible economic variables remain invisibly obscure, 57. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :

• Economic power is the only reason for the existence of inequality in a society.
• Inequality of different kinds, income, wealth, etc, reinforces power.
• Economic power can be analysed more through its effects than by direct empirical methods.

Which of thy above oasomptions is/are valid ?

Sol. Answer is (b). Assumption 1 is not correct due to the phrase “only reason”. Assumption 2 is wrong as it is inverting the relationship – it is power that reinforces and drives inequality. Assumption 3 is correct as borne out by the first statement.

Passage — 5 Climate change may actually benefit some plants by lengthening growing seasons and increasing carbon dioxide. Yet other effects of a warmer world, such as more pests, droughts, and flooding, will be less benign. How will the world adapt ? Researchers project that by 2050, suitable croplands for four commodities — maize, potatoes, rice and wheat — will shift, in some cases pushing farmers to plant new crops. Some farmlands may benefit from warming, but others won't. Climate alone does not dictate yields; political shifts, global "demand, and agricultural practices will influence how farms fare in the future. 58. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from) the above passage ?

• Farmers who modernize their methods and diversify their fields will be. in an advantageous position in future.
• Climate change will adversely affect the crop diversity.
• Shifting ma' r crops to new croplands will lead to a gr t increase in the total area under culti tion and thus an increase in overall agricultural production.
• Climate change is the most important factor affecting the agricultural economy in the future.

Sol. Answer is (d). Option (a) is not necessarily true always. Even after doing all that, other factors may not allow farmers any advantage. Option (b) is not mentioned. Option (c) is wrong as it is not discussed in this manner. Option (d) is the best. That is the overriding theme of the passage.

Passage — 6 A bat's .wings may look like sheets of skin. But underneath, a bat has the same five fingers as an orangutan or a human, as well as a wrist connected to the same cluster of wrist bones connected to the same long bones of the arm. What can be more curious than that the hand of a man, formed for grasping, that of a mole for digging, the leg of the horse, the-paddle of the porpoise, and the wing of the bat, should all be constructed on the some pattern ? 59. Which one of the following is the most logical, scientific and rational inference that can be made from the above passage ?

• Different species having similar structure of hands is an example of biodiversity.
• Limbs being used by different species for different kinds of work is an example of biodiversity.
• Man and the aforementioned animals having similar structure of limbs is an example of coincidence in evolution.
• Man and the aforementioned animals have a shared evolutionary history.

Sol. Answer is (d). Option (a) is not mentioned specifically. Option (b) again talks about “biodiversity” but limbs being used for different purpose is not biodiversity! Option (c) sound correct, but is not, as “coincidence in evolution” is not explicitly mentioned. Option (d) is best as “a shared evolutionary history” makes it a “very curious situation”.

Passage — 7 Around 56 million years ago, the Atlantic Ocean had not fully opened and animals, perhaps including our primate ancestors, could walk from Asia to North America through Europe and across Greenland. Earth was warmer than it is today, but as the Palaeocene epoch gave way to Eocene, it was about to get much warmer still —rapidly and radically. The cause was a massive geologically sudden release of carbon. During this period called Palaeocene - Eocene Thermal Maximum or PETM, the carbon injected into the atmosphere was roughly the amount that Would be injected today if humans burned all the Earth's reserves of coal, oil and natural gas. The PETM lasted for about 1,50,000 years, until the excess carbon was reabsorbed. It brought on drought, floods, insect plagues and a few extinctions. Life on Earth survived — indeed, it prospered — but it was drastically different. 60. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :

• Global warming has a bearing on the planet's biological evolution.
• Separation of land masses causes the release of huge quantities of carbon into the atmosphere.
• Increased warming of Earth's atmosphere can change the composition of its flora and fauna.
• The present man-made global warming will finally lead to conditions similar to those which happened 56 million years ago.

Which of the assumptions given above are valid ?

Sol. Answer is (c). Assumption 1 is clearly valid. Assumption 2 is too far-fetched, and cannot be deduced. Assumption 3 is valid as clearly stated. Assumption 4 again is too far-fetched as the amounts involved are too high.

61. A five-storeyed building with floors from I to V is painted using four different colours and only one colour is used to paint a floor. Consider the following statements:

• The middle three floors are painted in different colours.
• The second (II) and the fourth (IV) floors are painted in different colours.
• The first (I) and the fifth (V) floors are painted red.

To ensure that any two consecutive floors have different colours

• Only statement 2 is sufficient
• Only statement 3 is sufficient
• Statement 1 is not sufficient, but statement 1 along with statement 2 is sufficient
• Statement 3 is not sufficient, but statement 3 along with statement 2 is sufficient.

Sol. Answer is (b). Precondition - five floors are painted with 4 different colours.

Statement 1 – The middle three floors are painted in different colours does not gurantee any two consecutive floors of different colours as the colour of “I and II” or “IV and V” can be same.

Statement 2 – Second (II) and the fourth (IV) floors are painted in different colours does not guarantee any two consecutive floors of different colours as the colour of I and II or II and III, III and IV or IV and V can be same.

Statement 3 will ensure that any two consecutive floors have different colours as there are only four colours to be used. The remaining three floors will have different colours. Ans.(b)

62. P, Q and R are three towns. The distance between P and Q is 60 km, whereas the distance between P and R is 80 km. Q is in the West of P and R is in the South of P. What is the distance between Q and R?

Sol. Answer is (d). A direct application of Pythagoras theorem.

Refer to the diagram given :

Using Pythagoras theorem –

Distance between Q and R = √(〖80〗^2+〖60〗^2 )=√(6400+3600)=√10000=100 km. Ans.(d)

63. All members of a club went to Mumbai and stayed in a hotel. On the first day, 80% went for shopping and 50% went for sightseeing, whereas 10% took rest in the hotel. Which of the following conclusion(s) can be drawn from the above data?

• 40% members went for shopping as well as sightseeing.
• 20% members went for only shopping.

Sol. Answer is (a). By the Venn Diagram, we get

Only statement (1) is correct. Ans.(a)

64. In a school, 60% students play cricket. A student who does not play cricket, plays football. Every football player has got a two-wheeler. Which of the following conclusions cannot be drawn from the above data?

• 60% of the students do not have two-wheelers.
• No cricketer has a two-wheeler.
• Cricket players do not play football.

Sol. Answer is (a). The question is most obvious. Conclusions 1 and 2 cannot be drawn. A cricket player may have a two-wheeler, too. Ans.(a)

65. The ratio of a two-digit natural number to a number formed by reversing its digits is 4: 7. The number of such pairs is

Sol. Answer is (b). Let the ten's digit of two digit number ab be 'a' and unit’s digit be 'b'. So the number will be of the form 10a + b.

After reversing the digits the number will be 10b + a.

By the condition given in question we have (10a+b)/(10b+a)=4/7 which means a/b=1/2

So by putting the values, total possible pairs (12, 21), (24, 42), (36, 63), (48, 84).

Thus, four pairs are possible. Ans.(b)

66. In an examination, A has scored 20 marks more than B. If B has scored 5% less marks than A, how much has B scored?

Sol. Answer is (b). Check options directly.

Start with (a). If B is 360, A will be 380. Now, 5% of 380 = 19. So B will become 380 – 19 = 361. Hence this option is wrong (B is 360, not 361).

If B is 380, A will be 400. Now, 5% of 400 = 20. So B will be 400 – 20 = 380. Hence (b) is correct. You do not need to check options (c) and (d) at all.

67. Seeta and Geeta go for a swim after a gap of every 2 days and every 3 days respectively. If on 1st January both of them went for a swim together, when will they go together next?

• 7th January
• 8th January
• 12th January
• 13th January

Sol. Answer is (d). Seeta goes to swim every 3rd day and Geeta goes to swim every 4th day. They will go to swim together every 12th day (LCM of 3 and 4 is 12). So, on the 12th day after January 1, they will go together to swim i.e., on January 13. Ans.(d)

68. X, Y and Z are three contestants in a race of 1000 m. Assume that all run with different uniform speeds. X gives Y a start of 40 m and X gives Z a start of 64 m. If Y and Z were to compete in a race of 1000 m, how many metres start will Y give to Z?

In the 1000 m race, X gives Y 40 m start. That means Y starts race 40 m ahead of X.

In the 1000 m race, X gives Z 64 m start. That means Z starts race 64 m ahead of X

So, this means Y gives a lead of 24 m in a 1000 – 40 = 960 m race.

So, by unitary method, lead given by Y in 1000 m = 24/960×1000 = 25 m. Ans.(b)

69. If x is greater than or equal to 25 and y is less than or equal to 40, then which one of the following is always correct?

• x is greater than y
• (y - x) is greater than 15
• (y - x) is less than or equal to 15
• (x - y) is greater than or equal to 65

Given that x is greater than or equal to 25. Also, y is less than or equal to 40.

Let’s try to find the various values of y – x.

If y = 40, x can take various values like 25, 26, 27, ....... (not necessarily integers – not given in question) In that case y – x will take values like 15, 14, 13, 12,......0, - 1 etc.

If y = 39, x can take various values 25, 26, 27.... (not necessarily integers) In that case y – x will take values like 14, 13, 12, 11 ..... 0, - 1 etc.

Similarly, if y = 38, values of y – x will be 13, 12, 11, ..... 0, -1 etc. and so on.

So, we can say that value of y – x is less than or equal to 15 in all cases. Ans.(c)

70. Ena was born 4 years after her parents' marriage. Her mother is three years younger than her father and 24 years older than Ena, who is 13 years old. At what age did Ena's father get married?

Ena's present age = 13

Ena's mother's present age = 13 + 24 = 37.

Ena's father's present age = 37 + 3 = 40.

Now at present Ena is 13 years old and her parents got married 4 years before she was born.

So, Ena's parents got married 13 + 4 = 17 years earlier.

So at the time of marriage her father would be of 40 – 17 = 23 years old. Ans.(b)

71. Rakesh had money to buy 8 mobile handsets of a specific company. But the retailer offered very good discount on that particular handset. Rakesh could buy 10 mobile handsets with the amount he had. What was the discount the retailer offered?

Discount = Marked Price – Selling Price. Let the Marked Price of 10 articles = Rs. 100.

So, Marked Price of 8 articles = Rs. 80. (so each was marked at Rs.10)

So, as per the question, Rakesh purchased 10 mobile phones for Rs. 80

So, the selling price of 10 mobile phones = Rs. 80 (so each bought at Rs.8)

The discount is 2 rupees on 10 which is 20%.

[Alo, discount % = Discount × 100/ MP = 20 × 100/100 = 20%] Ans.(b)

72. The average marks of 100 students are given to be 40. It was found later that marks of one student were 53 which were misread as 83. The corrected mean marks are

Given, average marks of 100 students = 40.

So, total marks of 100 students = 40 × 100 = 4000.

But in this total the error is 83 – 53 = 30, more than the actual total.

So, Actual total = 4000 – 30 = 3970.

So the correct Mean = 3970/100 = 39.70. Ans.(b)

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following six passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Passage — 1 Low-end IoT (Internet of Things) devices are cheap commodity items: addressing security would add to the cost. This class of items is proliferating with new applications; many home appliances, thermostats, security and monitoring devices and personal convenience devices are part of the IoT. So are fitness trackers, certain medical implants and computer-like devices in automobiles. The IoT is expected to expand exponentially — but new security challenges are daunting. 73. Which one of the following statements is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

• Development of enabling technologies in India can be a big boost to its manufacturing sector.
• India is not yet fully ready to adopt IoT in view of the imminent security challenges.
• Life becomes more comfortable with the development of cheap low-end IoT devices.
• As we go digital, we must recognise the huge threat to Internet security from some IoT devices.

Sol. Answer is (d). Option (a) is irrelevant to the passage given. Option (b) is also irrelevant as “India” is not discussed in the passage. Option (c) is not correct as this is not the theme of this passage. Best answer is option (d).

Passage — 2 With the digital phenomenon restructuring most social sectors, it is little surprise that global trade negotiations are now eyeing the digital area in an attempt to pre-emptively colonise it. Big Data is freely collected or mined from developing countries, and converted into digital intelligence in developed countries. This intelligence begins to control different sectors and extract monopoly rents. A large foreign company providing cab service, for instance, is not a work of cars and drivers, it is digital intelligence about commuting, public transport, roads, traffic, city events, presonal behavioural characteristics of commuters and driver and so on. 74. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational corollary to the above passage?

• Globalization is not in the interests of India as it undermines its socio-economic structures.
• India should be careful to protect its digital sovereignty in global trade talks.
• India should charge monopoly rents from multinational companies in exchange for Big Data.
• The loss of Big Data from India is proportional to the degree/value of its foreign trade.

Sol. Answer is (b). Options (a), (c) and (d) are wrong. The passage is clearly talking about how digital data ownership is now driving trade and business advantages, and how Indian data in the hands of foreign firms is not a good idea (for India). Clearly, (b) represents the best corollary (i.e. a guidance for the future).

Passage — 2 With the digital phenomenon restructuring most social sectors, it is little surprise that global trade negotiations are now eyeing the digital area in an attempt to pre-emptively colonise it. Big Data is freely collected or mined from developing countries, and converted into digital intelligence in developed countries. This intelligence begins to control different sectors and extract monopoly rents. A large foreign company providing cab service, for instance, is not a work of cars and drivers, it is digital intelligence about commuting, public transport, roads, traffic, city events, presonal behavioural characteristics of commuters and driver and so on. 75. Which of the following is most definitively implied by the above passage?

• 7 Big Data is the key resource in the digital space.
• Big economies create Big Data.
• Access to Big Data is the prerogative of developed countries.
• Access to and possession of Big Data is a characteristic of developed countries.

Sol. Answer is (a). This is the central idea. Option (b) is a mere fact. Option (c) is wrong – the developed countries have no such right! Option (d) is not entirely correct.

Passage — 3 The rural poor across the world, including India, have contributed little to human-induced climate change, yet they are on the frontline in coping with its effects. Farmers can no longer rely on historical averages for rainfall and temperature, and the more frequent and extreme weather events, such as droughts and floods, can spell disaster. And there are new threats, such as sea level rise and the impact of melting glaciers on water supply. How significant are small farms? As many as two billion peopre worldwide depend on them for their food and livelihood. Small-holder farmers in India produce 41 percent of the country's food grains, and other food items that contribute to local and national food security. 76. What is the most logical and rational Corry to the above passage?

• Supporting small farmers is an important part of any agenda regarding environmentally sustainable development.
• Poor countries have little role to play in the mitigation of global warming.
• Due to a large number of farmer households, India will not have food security problem in the foreseeable future.
• Only small-holder farmers in India can ensure food security.

77. The above passage implies that

• There is a potential problem of food insecurity in India.
• India will have to strengthen its disaster management capabilities.

Solution for Q. 76 to 77:

Sol 76. Answer is (a). Options (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect. Option (b) is wrongly interpreting the passage – the poor may not have contributed to climate change, but they may have a role in mitigating it now. Option (c) is a big assumption being made, and may be wrong. Option (d) is not mentioned anywhere thus. The use of “only” makes it wrong. Best choice is option (a).

Sol 77. Answer is (c). Both assumptions seem valid. Assumption 1 is indicated as small farms produce a lot of food, and are under threat. Assumption 2 is a clear message for India, from the tone of the passage.

Passage – 4 A changing climate, and the eventual efforts of governments (however reluctant) to deal with it, could have a big impact on investors' returns. Companies that produce or use large amounts of fossil fuels will face higher taxes and regulatory burdens. Some energy producers may find it impossible to exploit their known reserves, and be left with "stranded assets" — deposits of oil and coal that have to be left in the ground. Other industries could be affected by the economic damage caused by more extreme weather — storms, floods, heat waves and droughts. 78. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

• Governments and companies need to be adequately prepared to face the climate change.
• Extreme weather events will reduce the economic growth of governments and companies'in future.
• Ignoring climate change is a huge risk for investors.

Sol. Answer is (c). Assumption 3 is definitely correct. So option (a) is ruled out. Assumption 2 is worded is a strange way – “economic growth of governments” does not sound right. So we reject it. So option (a) and (d) are gone. We are left with option (c) only.

Passage – 5 Access to schooling for those coming of school age is close to universal, but access to quality exhibits a sharp gradient with socio-economic status. Quotas for the weaker sections in private schools is a provision introduced by the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009. The quotas have imposed a debate on issues of social integration and equity in education that private actors had escaped by and large, The idea of egalitarian education system with equality of opportunity as its primary goal appears to be outside the space that private school principals inhabit. Therefore, the imposition of the quotas has led to resistance, sometimes justified. 79. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

• Making equality of opportunity a reality is the fundamental goal of the Indian education system.
• The present Indian school system is unable to provide egalitarian education.
• Abolition of private schools and establishment of more government schools is the only way to ensure egalitarian education.

Sol. Answer is (a). Assumption 2 is surely correct, as per the passage. So option (d) is ruled out. Assumption 3 is too strongly worded, and is not mentioned. In fact, a word of support for private schools is seen in the end of the passage. So we rule out assumption 3. We are now left with options (a) and (b). Assumption 1 is surely correct – it is mentioned. Hence, (a) is our answer.

Passage – 6 A majority of the TB infected in India are poor and lack sufficient nutrition, suitable housing and have little understanding of prevention. TB then devastates families, makes the poor poorer, particularly affects women and children, and leads to ostracisation and loss of employment. The truth is that even if TB does not kill them, hunger and poverty will. Another truth is that deep-seated stigma, lack of counselling, expensive treatment and lack of adequate support from providers and family, coupled with torturous side-effects demotivate patients to continue treatment — with disastrous health consequences. 80. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the above passage?

• TB is not a curable disease in Indian circumstances.
• Curing TB requires more than diagnosis and medical treatment.
• Government's surveillance mechanism is deficient; and poor people have no access to treatment.
• India will be free from diseases like TB only when its poverty alleviation programmes are effectively and successfully implemented.

Sol. Answer is (b). Option (a) is wrong. It is nowhere mentioned thus, with an air of fatality! Option (c) is wrong as poor do have access to treatment though it seems to be not working out well. The phrase “…have no access” is wrong. Option (d) goes tangentially into a different direction. Best answer is (b).

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UPSC Question Paper 2019

UPSC Mains 2019 was conducted from 20 September 2019. The IAS Mains examination has nine descriptive type papers. Aspirants can download the IAS Mains 2019 Question Papers from the links below. UPSC Civil Services Prelims Exam was conducted on June 2, 2019.

Solving the UPSC question papers is an essential part of IAS Exam preparation. IAS Toppers recommend solving at least 5 UPSC previous years’ question papers to get a feel of the exam pattern and the level of questions. Know more about IAS Toppers and their success stories from the link given at the end of the article.

You can download the UPSC Prelims 2020-2021 Question Papers from the linked articles given below:

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Why you should solve UPSC CSE Question Paper 2019

Solving the UPSC 2019 question paper will help you to assess your strength and weakness for your future attempts. When you solve these papers, you get the idea about what kind of questions are asked from different topics, which areas are more important, whether questions are more from the static part or the dynamic part, etc. 

In addition, solving the CSE 2019 paper will also help in familiarising with the exam pattern to a certain extent. 

Download UPSC Prelims GS Paper 1 below: 

UPSC Prelims 2019: GS Paper 1 (Series A): Download here

Upsc prelims 2019: gs paper 1 (series c): download here.

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UPSC Prelims 2019: CSAT paper II (Series A): Download here

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UPSC Mains 2019: Essay Paper: Download here

Upsc mains 2019: gs paper i: download here, upsc mains 2019: gs paper ii: download here, upsc mains 2019: gs paper iii: download here, upsc mains 2019: gs paper iv: download here, upsc mains 2019: english language compulsory paper: download here.

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General Studies Paper 3 (GS3) Question Paper – UPSC Civil Services Main Exam (Written) 2019

Last updated on September 30, 2023 by Alex Andrews George

Table of Contents

GENERAL STUDIES PAPER 3: UPSC Civil Services Mains Examination – 2019

Instructions.

• Total Marks: 250 marks, Time duration: 3 hours.
• There are 20 questions printed both in ENGLISH and HINDI.
• All questions are compulsory.
• The number of marks carried by a question/part is printed against it.
• Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the admission certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this question-cum-answer (QCA) booklet in the space provided.
• No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than an authorized one.
• Answers to questions no. 1 to 10 should be in 150 words, whereas answers to questions no. 11 to 20 should be in 250 words.
• Keep the word limit indicated in the questions in mind.
• Any page or portion of the page left blank must be struck off clearly.

General Studies Paper 3 (GS3) Questions – UPSC CSE Mains 2019

Qn1. Enumerate the indirect taxes which have been subsumed in the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India. Also, comment on the revenue implications of the GST introduced in India in July 2017. (Answer in 150 words)

Qn2. Do you agree with the view that steady GDP growth and low inflation have left the Indian economy in good shape? Give reasons in support of your arguments. (Answer in 150 words)

Qn3. How far is the Integrated Farming System (IFS) helpful in sustaining agricultural production? (Answer in 150 words)

Qn4. Elaborate on the impact of the National Watershed Project in increasing agricultural production from water-stressed areas. (Answer in 150 words)

Qn5. How did India benefit from the contributions of Sir M. Visvesvaraya and Dr. M. S. Swaminathan in the fields of water engineering and agricultural science respectively? (Answer in 150 words)

Qn6. What is India’s plan to have its own space station and how will it benefit our space programme? (Answer in 150 words)

Qn7.  Coastal sand mining, whether legal or illegal, poses one of the biggest threats to our environment. Analyze the impact of sand mining along the Indian coasts, citing specific examples. (Answer in 150 words)

Qn8. Vulnerability is an essential element for defining disaster impacts and its threat to people. How and in what ways can vulnerability to disasters be characterized? Discuss different types of vulnerability with reference to disasters. (Answer in 150 words)

Qn9. The banning of ‘Jamaat–e–Islami in Jammu and Kashmir brought into focus the role of over-ground workers (OGWs) in assisting terrorist organizations. Examine the role played by OGWs in assisting terrorist organizations in insurgency-affected areas. Discuss measures to neutralize the influence of OGWs. (Answer in 150 words)

Qn10. What is the CyberDome Project? Explain how it can be useful in controlling internet crimes in India. (Answer in 150 words)

Qn11. It is argued that the strategy of inclusive growth is intended to meet the objectives of inclusiveness and sustainability together. Comment on this statement. (Answer in 250 words)

Qn12. Public expenditure management is a challenge to the government of India in the context of budget-making during the post-liberalization period. Clarify it. (Answer in 250 words)

Qn13. What are the reformative steps taken by the government to make the food grain distribution system more effective? (Answer in 250 words)

Qn14. Elaborate on the policy taken by the government of India to meet the challenges of the food processing sector . (Answer in 250 words)

Qn15. How is the government of India protecting traditional knowledge of medicine from patenting by pharmaceutical companies? (Answer in 250 words)

Qn16. How can biotechnology improve the living standards of farmers? (Answer in 250 words)

Qn17. Define the concept of the carrying capacity of an ecosystem as relevant to an environment. Explain how understanding this concept is vital while planning for the sustainable development of a region. (Answer in 250 words)

Qn18. Disaster preparedness is the first step in any disaster management process . Explain how hazard zonation mapping will help in disaster mitigation in the case of landslides. (Answer in 250 words)

Qn19. The Indian government has recently strengthened the anti-terrorism laws by amending the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967, and the NIA Act. Analyze the changes in the context of the prevailing security environment while discussing the scope and reasons for opposing the UAPA by human rights organizations. (Answer in 250 words)

Qn20. The cross-border movement of insurgents is only one of the several security challenges facing the policing of the border in North-East India. Examine the various challenges currently emanating across the India-Myanmar border. Also, discuss the steps to counter the challenges. (Answer in 250 words)

UPSC CSE General Studies Paper 3 (GS3) Question Paper: Analysis

While General Studies Paper 1 and General Studies Paper 2 of the UPSC Civil Services Mains Exam were really ‘general’ in nature, General Studies Paper 3 didn’t turn out like that. The exam contained a mix of specific and general questions – both requiring analysis from the end of candidates.

Re-entry of Questions about Specific Topics!

Integrated Farming System (IFS), National Watershed Project, Over-Ground-Workers, the contributions of Vishwesharia and Dr. M. S. Swaminathan, Cyber Dome Project, Carrying Capacity, UAPA – 7 out of 20 questions were specific in nature.

However, most of these could have been answered by a well-read youth. Further, the questions were not to provide definitions, but rather an analysis connected with these topics.

Application-based Questions

Almost everyone knows about GST and Biotechnology – at least from a general perspective. The same is the case with the Indian Space Program. However, questions were connected with the application side.

Preparing for UPSC 2020? Don’t miss the new ClearIAS Backgrounder!

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September 22, 2019 at 1:03 pm

September 22, 2019 at 2:17 pm

Paper is not too much difficult. Only 1 -2 question will create challenge. Everything will depend upon structure and speed.

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UPSC Civil Services (Prelims) Exam: 10 years Question Paper [PDF] {2023-2013}

Rau’s IAS offers you to download 10 years of UPSC Prelims question papers in PDF format for free. These question papers are a valuable resource for UPSC aspirants as they can help you understand the exam pattern, question trends, and the overall level of difficulty.

Civil Services Prelims Question Paper

UPSC Prelims 2023

Upsc prelims 2022, upsc prelims 2021, upsc prelims 2020, upsc prelims 2019, upsc prelims 2018, upsc prelims 2017, upsc prelims 2016, upsc prelims 2015, upsc prelims 2014, upsc prelims 2013.

This page is dedicated to UPSC Prelims Previous Year Question Papers. However, if you prefer to attempt the question papers in MCQ format, here are some pages specifically designed for you.

These pages compile questions from the past 10 years, organized by subject.

Why previous year question papers are important ?

Previous year question papers are a valuable resource for any student who is preparing for a competitive exam. This can be helpful to Understand the exam pattern, Identify your strengths and weaknesses, Practice answering attempting under timed conditions, familiarize yourself with the question types and Boost your confidence.

Are these free ?

Yes, previous year question papers for the UPSC Prelims exam are available for free.

What years are covered in the UPSC Prelims question paper archive on this page?

Our archive provides UPSC Prelims question papers from the year 2013 to 2023.

Is there any analysis available for the question papers provided?

Currently, the page provides question papers only. However, you might find analysis and insights on other pages (check our resources).

Can I share these question papers with my friends?

Yes, you are free to share the question papers with anyone preparing for the UPSC Prelims exam.

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UPSC Mains Answer Writing Practice – Insights SECURE: 4 June 2024

UPSC Mains Answer Writing practice : 4th June 2024

The Insights IAS Secure Initiative for UPSC Mains Answer Writing practice enables you to practice daily answer writing, enhancing your skills and boosting your scores with regular feedback, expert tips, and strategies. Let consistency be the hallmark of your preparation and utilize UPSC Mains Answer Writing practice initiative wisely

Click on EACH question to post/upload you answers.

How to Follow Secure Initiative?

How to self-evaluate your answer , mission – 2023: yearlong timetable, join ipm 4.0 to get an assured review of 2 secure answers everyday, general studies – 1.

Topic: Distribution of key natural resources across the world (including South Asia and the Indian sub-continent);

1. The current status of water bodies in India is alarming. Fresh water bodies are facing significant challenges due to various anthropogenic and natural factors. Examine. (250 words)

Difficulty level: Moderate

Reference: Insights on India

Why the question: The question is part of the static syllabus of General studies paper – 1. Key Demand of the question: To write about the present status of water bodies, major issues affecting their distribution and utilisation. Directive word:  Examine – When asked to ‘Examine’, we must investigate the topic (content words) in detail, inspect it, investigate it and establish the key facts and issues related to the topic in question. While doing so we should explain why these facts and issues are important and their implications. Structure of the answer: Introduction:  Start by giving context of water resources. Cite statistics. Body: First, write about the current status of water resources – current status of water bodies in India, including rivers, lakes, ponds, wetlands, and groundwater resources etc. Next, write about the various issues in the above – including encroachment and destruction due to urbanization and industrialization, pollution, climate change, and inadequate water management policies. Next, write about the steps that must be taken in order to overcome the above issues. Conclusion: Conclude by writing a way forward. 

Topic: Social empowerment

2. The persistent practice of manual scavenging in India is a stark reminder of the deep-seated social and economic inequalities. Examine. (250 words)

Difficulty level: Easy

Why the question: The question is part of the static syllabus of General studies paper – 1. Key Demand of the question: To write about the persistent practise of manual scavenging despite being banned and steps needed to stop it. Directive: Examine – When asked to ‘Examine’, we must investigate the topic (content words) in detail, inspect it, investigate it and establish the key facts and issues related to the topic in question. While doing so we should explain why these facts and issues are important and their implications. Structure of the answer: Introduction: Begin by giving context. Body: First, write about reasons for lack of effective implementation of the laws to prevent the practice of manual scavenging – lack of alternative livelihood opportunities for affected communities, political will, resources, and capacity-building of government agencies. Next, write about the steps we can take in this regard – multi-pronged approach that addresses the root causes of the problem, provides alternative livelihood opportunities, ensures effective implementation of laws and policies, and promotes public awareness campaigns to change societal attitudes etc. Conclusion: Conclude by writing a way forward.

General Studies – 2

Topic: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation.

3. Making healthcare in India more accessible and affordable is essential for improving public health, fostering economic stability, and promoting social equity. Discuss. Suggest steps to make healthcare more accessible and affordable. (250 words)

Difficulty level: Tough

Reference: The Hindu

Why the question: As we navigate the dynamic landscape of Indian health care, cost considerations are increasingly influencing every aspect of service delivery and patient care Key Demand of the question: To write about the importance of making healthcare more accessible and affordable. Directive word:   Discuss – This is an all-encompassing directive – you must debate on paper by going through the details of the issues concerned by examining each one of them. You must give reasons for both for and against arguments. Structure of the answer: Introduction:  Begin by giving context. Body: First, write about the various bottlenecks in accessibility and affordability of health care in India. Next, write about the importance of accessible and affordable healthcare. Suggest reforms to ensure the that healthcare is accessible and affordable by all. Conclusion: Conclude with a way forward.

Topic: Issues relating to development and management of Social Sector/Services relating to Health , Education , Human Resources

4. The government must prioritize education, nutrition, and health of children in their policies due to their critical role in fostering socio-economic development and ensuring future well-being. Discuss. (250 words)

Why the question: Children form about 30% of India’s population, but they are invisible during elections. Key Demand of the question: To write about the need for prioritising education, nutrition, and health of children in its policies. Directive word: Discuss – This is an all-encompassing directive – you must debate on paper by going through the details of the issues concerned by examining each one of them. You must give reasons for both for and against arguments. Structure of the answer: Introduction:  Begin by giving context. Body: In the first part, write about the importance of child education – enhances human capital, drives economic growth, and promotes social stability. Next, write about the importance of child nutrition – physical and cognitive development, leading to better educational outcomes and long-term health etc. Next, write about the importance of child health – boosts productivity, reduces healthcare costs, and improves quality of life. Mentions ways to achieve the above Conclusion: Conclude by writing a way forward.

General Studies – 3

Topic: e-technology in the aid of farmers.

5. Policymakers need to carefully weigh the benefits and risks associated with herbicide-tolerant (Ht) rice and consider alternative sustainable agricultural practices that ensure economic viability for farmers, protect the environment, and safeguard national food security. Examine. (250 words)

Reference: Down to Earth

Why the question: The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has commercialised herbicide-tolerant (Ht) basmati rice varieties, claiming they can control weeds in rice crops while also promoting water-saving direct seeded rice (DSR). Key Demand of the question: To write about the pros and cons of commercialising herbicide-tolerant (Ht) rice. Directive word:  Examine – When asked to ‘Examine’, we must investigate the topic (content words) in detail, inspect it, investigate it and establish the key facts and issues related to the topic in question. While doing so we should explain why these facts and issues are important and their implications. Structure of the answer: Introduction:  Begin by giving context. Body: First, write about the need for Ht rice. Next, write about the advantages it offers – weed control and labor savings, potentially leading to higher yields etc. Next, write about various risks associated with it – high costs of seeds and herbicides, increased, risk of herbicide-resistant weeds, biodiversity loss, soil health degradation, food security and water pollution etc Conclusion: Conclude by writing a way forward.

Topic: Infrastructure: Energy, Ports, Roads, Airports, Railways etc.

6. The widespread adoption of electric vehicles (EVs) in India faces several key challenges. Addressing these challenges is essential to overcome the barriers to EV adoption and pave the way for a cleaner and more sustainable transportation future in India. Evaluate. (250 words)

Reference: Live Mint

Why the question: Last November, Delhi came up with its Delhi Motor Vehicle Aggregator and Delivery Service Provider Scheme, 2023. It mandates licensing and regulatory requirements for aggregators, delivery service providers and e-commerce entities. Key Demand of the question: To write about the evaluation of India’s move towards electric vehicles (EVs), focusing on progress, challenges in it and government initiatives need to overcome it. Directive word:  Evaluate – When you are asked to evaluate, you have to pass a sound judgement about the truth of the given statement in the question or the topic based on evidence.  You must appraise the worth of the statement in question. There is scope for forming an opinion here. Structure of the answer: Introduction: Start by giving aa statistics related to EV vehicle adoption for context. Body: First, write about India’s progress in transitioning towards electric vehicles (EVs). Highlight the increase in the number of EV sales, the growth of EV charging infrastructure, and the initiatives taken by automakers to introduce EV models in the market. Next, write about the key challenges hindering widespread EV adoption in India. Discuss issues such as high upfront costs, limited charging infrastructure, range anxiety, and consumer perceptions. Address the need for addressing these challenges through policy interventions and public awareness campaigns. Conclusion: Conclude by writing a way forward.

General Studies – 4

Topic: Case Study

7. Sreekanth is District Magistrate of La La Land. The land is home to diverse communities, living in harmony despite occasional tensions. However, recent events have led to an increase in communal tensions and an atmosphere of distrust.

Sreekanth’s reputation as a just and fair administrator is well-known. As the District Magistrate, he finds himself in the midst of a delicate situation when he receives a call from both the influential MLA and the Mayor. They request his assistance in demolishing what they claim are illegal constructions linked to the minority community.

The MLA and Mayor assert that these constructions have been established without proper permits and are a result of the recent riots, which they attribute to the minority community. They claim that these buildings serve as hotbeds of dissent and must be torn down to maintain peace and security in the region.

Sreekanth is faced with an ethical dilemma. On one hand, he understands the importance of maintaining law and order in the region. On the other, he senses a hidden agenda behind the MLA and Mayor’s request. He knows that blindly complying with their demands could lead to further unrest and fuel division among the communities.

• What are the options available to Sreekanth?
• Critically analyse the above-mentioned actions?
• Which actions should Sreekanth choose? Why?
• What are the ethical issues in the above case?

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• ICAI Releases Admit Cards for CA Foundation June 2024 exam

ICAI Releases Admit Cards for CA Foundation June 2024 exam at eservices.icai.org

Representative Image Source: Shutterstock

The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) has issued the admit cards for the CA Foundation June 2024 session. Candidates who registered for the exam can now download their admit cards from the official ICAI website, eservices.icai.org, by using their registration number and date of birth.

The CA Foundation exam will be conducted on June 20, 22, 24, and 26, 2024. In addition, ICAI has activated the link for the CA Foundation series III mock test today. Candidates can access the series III mock test from 5 June to 12 June.

Exam Structure and Marking Scheme: The CA Foundation exam consists of four papers:

• Paper 1 and Paper 2: Subjective type
• Paper 3 and Paper 4: Objective type, with negative marking. One-fourth of a mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer.

Each paper is worth 100 marks, making a total of 400 marks for the entire examination. To pass the CA Foundation exam, candidates must score at least 40% in each paper and achieve an aggregate of 55% across all four papers.

How to Download the CA Foundation Admit Card?

Step 1: Visit the official ICAI website at eservices.icai.org

Step 2: Click on the 'CA Foundation admit card' link on the homepage

Step 3: Enter your registration number and date of birth to log in

Step 4: The admit card will be displayed on the screen

Step 5: Download and take a printout of the admit card

Candidates are advised to check all the details provided in the admit card carefully for any discrepancies. If any mistake is found, candidates must take up the issue with ICAI and get it rectified.

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