gcse creative writing exam questions

Insider GCSE creative writing tips + 106 prompts from past papers

by Hayley | Mar 9, 2023 | Exams , Writing | 0 comments

Are you feeling a little bit twitchy about your child’s English GCSE writing task?

Sciences and humanities – although sometimes daunting in their content – seem a fair bet as ‘revisable’ topics. But the creative writing element of the English Language GCSE is less knowable and ultimately more of a frightening prospect for a student keen to do well.

Preparing for the GCSE writing task? You don’t need to do it alone.

We run a weekly online writing club which prepares students to write high-scoring content. Our “Higher” level club is designed to transform your writing so that you can ace the GCSE language paper.

What is the GCSE writing element of the GCSE Language Paper?

There are 5 key GCSE exam boards: AQA , OCR , Pearson Edexcel , WJEC Eduqas and CCEA . Each board sets their own papers which may appear much the same at first glance (bizarrely they all have a similar front cover layout and fonts). Certainly there is plenty of overlap between their mark schemes and the comments and tips they share in their Examiner Reports.

However, as with all your child’s other subjects, it is essential to know which exam board they are preparing for. You may be surprised to discover that schools pick and choose boards by subject, perhaps choosing AQA for chemistry and OCR for mathematics. Individual school departments have their own preferences. My brother teaches at a school where their English Literature and English Language exams have been split between two different boards. This is unusual though, not the norm!

What forms (question formats) can the test take?

It varies by board.

The AQA board has a writing task in their Question Paper 1 called Explorations in creative reading and writing . Students are given two prompts to choose between. The AQA board also has a second persuasive writing task in Paper 2 called Writers’ viewpoints and perspectives.

Jump ahead to AQA creative writing and persuasive writing prompts from past GCSE papers

The Pearson/Edexcel international iGCSE favoured by many UK private schools has two prompts to choose between for each section. The student is asked to complete a piece of transactional writing (perhaps a persuasive speech or an advertisement leaflet) and additionally a piece of imaginative writing.

Jump ahead to Pearson/Edexcel transactional writing and imaginative writing prompts from past GCSE papers

Interestingly, the WJEC Eduqas board favours non-fiction writing. Unit 2 Reading and Writing: Description, Narration and Exposition gives two prompts to choose between, for an account and an essay perhaps, and Unit 3: Reading and Writing: Argumentation, Persuasion and Instructional sets up a letter, or similar.

Jump ahead to WJEC Eduqas non-fiction writing prompts from past GCSE papers

The OCR board offers two prompts to choose between. One might be a talk for other students and the other might be a letter on a difficult subject .

Jump ahead to OCR creative writing prompts from past GCSE papers

The CCEA board has a writing task in called “ Writing for Purpose and Audience and Reading to Access Non-fiction and Media Texts” and a second writing task which offers a choice between personal writing and creative writing.

Jump ahead to CCEA persuasive writing, personal writing, and creative prompts from past GCSE papers

How long do students have to craft their piece of writing?

Creative writing tests are timed at either 45 minutes or 1 hour. The last thing your child will need is to prepare to write for an hour, only to find they have just three-quarters of an hour on the day. If in doubt, insist that they check with their teacher.

AQA students are given 45 minutes to produce their writing response. The introduction advises: ‘ You are reminded of the need to plan your answer. You should leave enough time to check your work at the end.’ What this means is that 30–35 minutes max is what’s really allowed there for the writing itself.

Pearson/Edexcel allows 45 minutes for each of the two writing tasks.

OCR students are given an hour to complete this section of their exam. The introduction states: ‘You are advised to plan and check your work carefully,’ so they will expect the writing itself to take 45–50 minutes.

How long should the completed GCSE writing task be?

Interestingly, although the mark schemes all refer to paragraphingthey don’t state how many paragraphs they expect to see.

‘A skilfully controlled overall structure, with paragraphs and grammatical features used to support cohesion and achieve a range of effects’ (OCR)

‘Fluently linked paragraphs with seamlessly integrated discourse markers’ (AQA)

Why? Because management of paragraph and sentence length is a structural technique available to the student as part of their writers’ toolkit. If the number of optimal paragraphs were to be spelled out by the board, it would have a negative impact on the freedom of the writer to use their paragraphs for impact or to manage the pace of the reader.

For a general guide I would expect to see 3 to 5 paragraphs in a creative piece and 5 paragraphs in a persuasive piece. Leaflets have a different structure entirely and need to be set out in a particular form to achieve the top notes of the mark scheme.

What are the examiners looking for when they are marking a student’s creative writing paper?

There are two assessment objectives for the writing itself:

• It has to be adapted to the form, tone and register of writing for specific purposes and audiences.
• It has to use a range of vocabulary and sentence structures, with appropriate paragraphing, spelling, punctuation and grammar.

As a GCSE English nerd, I really enjoy delving deeper into the Examiner Reports that each board brings out once the previous cohort’s papers have been marked. They are a fascinating read and never disappoint…

Within their pages, examiners spell out the differences they have spotted between the stronger and the weaker responses.

For example, a creative task set by the AQA board was to describe a photograph of a town at sunset. The examiners explained that some of the strongest responses imagined changes in the scene as darkness descended. They enjoyed reading responses that included personification of the city, and those that imagined the setting in the past, or the weariness of the city. Weaker candidates simply listed what was in the picture or referred directly to the fact it was an image. This chronological-list approach weakened the structure of their work.

No surprises that some weaker students relied heavily on conversation. (As an exam marker myself, I dreaded reading acres of uninspiring direct speech.)

Pearson/Edexcel explain that weaker persuasive pieces (in this case on the value of television) simply listed pros and cons rather than developed ideas fully to clarify their own opinions. The higher-level responses here were quirky and engaging, entertaining the reader with a range of appropriate techniques and making the argument their own.

What accommodations are possible for students who have specific learning difficulties?

The UK Government’s Guide for Schools and Colleges 2022: GCSE, AS and A Levels includes information about changes to assessments to support ‘disabled students.’ Their definition of disabled includes specific learning difficulties (dyslexia, dyspraxia, ADHD, ADD, ASD etc).

Exam boards can make a wide range of adjustments to their assessments. Some of the most common adjustments are:

• modified papers (for example, large print or braille exam papers)
• access to assistive software (for example, voice recognition systems or computer readers)
• help with specific tasks (for example, another person might read questions to the student or write their dictated answers)
• changes to how the assessment is done (for example, an oral rather than a written assessment, word-processing rather than hand-writing answers)
• extra time to complete assessments
• exemptions from an assessment

The exam board will expect paperwork to be in place where your child’s specific needs are formally reported by an appropriate professional (Educational Psychologist, Clinical Psychologist, Consultant). The report needs to be recent, but how recent is difficult to confirm.

If your child is likely to need adjustments to their access arrangements you will need to discuss this with their school in plenty of time before the exam itself.

A close friend of mine realised in the final few weeks before her son’s GCSE exams that his tinnitus would have a negative impact on his performance. She approached the school to ask if he might take his exams in a separate room to minimise noise disturbance. Unfortunately, it was far too late by then to apply, and her son was denied the request.

Your child’s school will explain the process for applying for special arrangements and will be able to advise you on what your expectations should be. Never presume your child will be given what they need – but plenty of requests are successful, so stay positive and make sure your paperwork is in order beforehand.

Tips and strategies for writing a high scoring GCSE creative writing paper:

1.         learn the formats.

Know the different formats and conventions of the different GCSE writing tasks. There is a standard layout for a leaflet, for example, where including contact details and a series of bullet points is part of the mark scheme. Not knowing these conventions will knock back a student’s score.

2.         Plan ahead

Prepare a planning structure for each of the written forms you might encounter during the exam. It may need to be flexed on the day, but it will banish fear of the blank page and allow you to get started.

3.         Prepare sentence-openings

Familiarise yourself with appropriate sentence-openings for each type of GCSE writing task. Fronted adverbials of time and place will improve the quality of a creative piece, whereas access to varied and specific conjunctions might push up the mark of a transactional piece.

4.         Check your speaking

Ask your family to check your speech at home. Every now and then try to flip a sentence into formal language, using more interesting synonyms for your usual spoken vocabulary. This will help you to write formally on paper, avoiding colloquialisms.

5.         Forget finishing

Finishing is less important than you might imagine. Sloppy, hurried work is your enemy. GCSE examiners will follow your clear planning and mark you accordingly, even if you’ve not managed to complete that final paragraph.

6.         Note the details

The question often gives additional information the examiner would like to see included. Note it in your plan to make sure it doesn’t get forgotten.

7.         Start strong

Use your best sentence-opener at the start of each paragraph. It will set you up as someone to be taken seriously.

8.         Cut back dialogue

Keep dialogue contained in a single paragraph. Focus on description of the speaker and their actions before noting the second character’s reply.

9.         Revise

Do this by prepping work as above. Nothing beats it.

Would you like me to transform your child’s writing in my higher writing club?

Each week in my higher writing club , we spend 20 minutes on Zoom together. After the task has been introduced, the students write for 15 minutes. Next, they upload their work for 1:1 video marking.

There is no point prepping essays/creative pieces for the GCSE English Language exam if your child’s writing is poor. First, their scruffy presentation, attention to detail, punctuation, grammar and vocabulary need to be addressed.

After 2 months in the higher writing club your child’s written technique and fluency will be transformed by our 1–2-1 video marking system (consistent messaging is achieved by matching your child with their own teacher).

Each weekly activity is drawn directly from the GCSE English Language Subject Content and Assessment Objectives , published by the English Department of Education.

Here’s an example of a student’s writing, BEFORE they joined our club:

It is chaotic, poorly-presented and nonsensical. Letter-sizing is confused and the student is clearly anxious and repeatedly scribbling through small errors.

Below is the same student 2 months later:

Observe the rich vocabulary, authorial techniques (the jagged rocks are ‘like shards of broken glass’) and general fluency and sophistication.

Real and recent GCSE example questions/prompts from each of the 5 key exam boards

Aqa english language gcse questions, paper 2 writers’ viewpoints and perspectives:.

• ‘Our addiction to cheap clothes and fast fashion means young people in poorer countries have to work in terrible conditions to make them. We must change our attitude to buying clothes now.’ Write an article for a magazine or website in which you argue your point of view on this statement. ( Source )
• ‘People have become obsessed with travelling ever further and faster. However, travel is expensive, dangerous, damaging and a foolish waste of time!’ Write an article for a news website in which you argue your point of view on this statement. ( Source )
• ‘Cars are noisy, dirty, smelly and downright dangerous. They should be banned from all town and city centres, allowing people to walk and cycle in peace.’ Write a letter to the Minister for Transport arguing your point of view on this statement. ( Source )
• ‘All sport should be fun, fair and open to everyone. These days, sport seems to be more about money, corruption and winning at any cost.’ Write an article for a newspaper in which you explain your point of view on this statement. ( Source )

Paper 1 Explorations in creative reading and writing:

• A magazine has asked for contributions for their creative writing section. Either write a description of an old person as suggested by the picture below or write a story about a time when things turned out unexpectedly. ( Source )

• Your school or college is asking students to contribute some creative writing for its website. Either, describe a market place as suggested by the picture below or write a story with the title, ‘Abandoned’. ( Source )

• Your local library is running a creative writing competition. The best entries will be published in a booklet of creative writing. Either, write a description of a mysterious place, as suggested by the picture below or write a story about an event that cannot be explained. ( Source )

• A magazine has asked for contributions for their creative writing section. Either, describe a place at sunset as suggested by the picture below or write a story about a new beginning. ( Source )

OCR English Language GCSE questions

Paper: communicating information and ideas.

• Either, Write a post for an online forum for young people about ‘A moment that changed my life’.
• Or, You are giving a talk at a parents’ information evening about why all children should study science at school. Explain your views. ( Source )
• Either, Write a letter to a friend to describe a challenging and unpleasant task you once had to do.
• Or, Write a short guide for new workers about how to deal successfully with difficult customers. ( Source )
• Either, “Was it worth it?” Write an article for a magazine to describe a time when you had to do something difficult.
• Or, Write a speech for an event to congratulate young people who have achieved something remarkable. ( Source )
• Either, Write the words of a talk to advise pet owners how to make life more enjoyable for their pet and themselves.
• Or, Write an article for a travel magazine to describe your dramatic encounter with an animal. ( Source )
• Either, ‘How I prefer to spend my time.’ Write the words of a talk to young people about your favourite activity
• Or, Write a magazine article to persuade parents to allow their teenage children more freedom. You are not required to include any visual or presentational features. ( Source )
• Either, Write a talk for other students about a person you either admire strongly or dislike intensely
• Or, Write a letter to a friend to explain a difficult decision you had to make. ( Source )

Paper: Exploring effects and impact

• Either, Hunger satisfied. Use this as the title for a story.
• Or, Write about a time when you were waiting for something. ( Source )
• Either, The Taste of Fear Use this as the title for a story.
• Or, Write about a time when you were exploring a particular place. ( Source )
• Either, Alone. Use this as the title for a story.
• Or, Describe a time when you found yourself in a crowd or surrounded by people. ( Source )
• Either, Land at Last. Use this as the title for a story.
• Or, Imagine you have visited somewhere for the first time and are now reporting back on your experience. ( Source )
• Either, The Playground Use this as the title for a story
• Or, Write about a memory you have of playing a childhood game. ( Source )
• Either, It seemed to me like I had been magically transported. Use this as the title for a story.
• Or, Describe a place where you have felt comfortable. ( Source )

Pearson Edexcel English Language iGCSE questions

Paper 1: transactional writing.

• Either, ‘In our busy twenty-first century lives, hobbies and interests are more important than ever.’ Write an article for a newspaper expressing your views on this statement.
• Or, ‘We are harming the planet we live on and need to do more to improve the situation.’ You have been asked to deliver a speech to your peers in which you explain your views on this statement. ( Source )
• ‘ Zoos protect endangered species from around the world.’ ‘No wild animal should lose its freedom and be kept in captivity. Write an article for a magazine in which you express your views on zoos.
• Write a review of an exciting or interesting event that you have seen. ( Source )
• Your local newspaper has published an article with the headline ‘Young people today lack any desire for adventure’. Write a letter to the editor of the newspaper expressing your views on this topic.
• ‘The key to success in anything is being prepared.’ Write a section for a guide giving advice on the importance of preparation. ( Source )
• You and your family have just returned from a holiday that did not turn out as you expected. Write a letter to the travel agent with whom you booked your holiday, explaining what happened.
• A magazine is publishing articles with the title ‘Friendship is one of the greatest gifts in life’. Write your article on this topic. ( Source )
• ‘Important lessons I have learned in my life.’ You have been asked to deliver a speech to your peers on this topic.
• Your local/school library wants to encourage young people to read more. Write the text of a leaflet explaining the benefits of reading. ( Source )
• ‘Most memorable journeys.’ A website is running a competition to reward the best articles on this subject. Write an article for the competition about a memorable journey.
• ‘Cycling is one form of exercise that can lead to a healthier lifestyle.’ Write a guide for young people on the benefits of exercise. ( Source )
• ‘Television educates, entertains and helps global understanding.’ ‘Television is to blame for society’s violence and greed and delivers one-sided news.’ You have been asked to deliver a speech in which you express your views and opinions on television.
• ‘Choosing a career is one of the most important decisions we ever make.’ Write the text of a leaflet that gives advice to young people on how to choose a career. ( Source )
• Write the text for a leaflet aimed at school students which offers advice on how to deal with bullying.
• A museum is planning to open a new exhibition called ‘Life in the Twenty-First Century’. ( Source )

Paper 2: Imaginative writing

• Write about a time when you, or someone you know, enjoyed success
• Write a story with the title ‘A Surprise Visitor’.
• Look at the two images below. Choose one and write a story that begins ‘I did not have time for this’ ( Source )

• Write about a time when you, or someone you know, challenged an unfair situation.
• Write a story with the title ‘Bitter, Twisted Lies’.
• Look at the two images below. Choose one and write a story that begins ‘It was a new day …’ You may wish to base your response on one of these images. ( Source )

• Write about a time when you, or someone you know, visited a new place.
• Write a story with the title ‘The Storm’
• Look at the two images below. Choose one and write a story that ends ‘I decided to get on with it.’ ( Source )

• Write about a time when you, or someone you know, saw something surprising.
• Write a story with the title ‘The Meeting’.
• Look at the two images below. Choose one and write a story that starts ‘Suddenly, without warning, there was a power cut.’ ( Source )

• Write about a time when you, or someone you know, went on a long journey.
• Write a story with the title ‘A New Start’
• Look at the two images below. Choose one and write a story that begins ‘I tried to see what he was reading. ( Source )

• Write about a time when you, or someone you know, felt proud.
• Write a story with the title ‘The Hidden Book’.
• Look at the two images below. Choose one and write a story that begins ‘It was like a dream’ ( Source )

• Write about a time when you, or someone you know, had to be brave
• Write a story with the title ‘Everything Had Changed’
• Look at the two images below. Choose one and write a story that begins ‘It was an unusual gift’. ( Source )

WJEC Eduqas English Language GCSE questions

Unit 2 reading and writing: description, narration and exposition.

• Write an account of a time when you enjoyed or hated taking part in an outdoor activity.
• “It’s essential that more people are more active, more often.” (Professor Laura McAllister, Chair of Sport Wales) Write an essay to explain how far you agree with this view, giving clear reasons and examples. ( Source )
• Describe an occasion when you did something you found rewarding.
• Famous chefs such as Jamie Oliver and Mary Berry have spoken of the need for better food and better education about food in schools. Write an essay to explain your views on this subject, giving clear reasons and examples. ( Source )
• Write an account of a visit to a dentist or a doctor’s surgery.
• NHS staff, such as doctors and nurses, provide excellent service in difficult circumstances. Write an essay to explain your views on this subject, giving clear reasons and examples. ( Source )
• Write an article for a travel magazine describing somewhere interesting that you have visited.
• You see the following in your local newspaper: ‘Young people are selfish. They should all be made to volunteer to help others.’ Write an essay to explain your views on this subject, giving clear reasons and examples. ( Source )
• Describe an occasion when technology made a difference to your life.
• Write an account of a time you were unwilling to do something. ( Source )
• Describe a time when you faced a challenge
• Write an essay explaining why charity is important, giving clear reasons and examples. ( Source )
• Write an account of a time when you did something for the first time.
• “It’s time for us to start making some changes. Let’s change the way we eat, let’s change the way we live, and let’s change the way we treat each other.” Tupac Shakur Write an essay on the subject of change, giving clear reasons and examples. ( Source )
• “School uniform is vitally important in all schools.” Write an essay explaining your views on this, giving clear reasons and examples.
• Describe a time when you had to create a good impression. ( Source )

Unit 3: Reading and writing: Argumentation, persuasion and instructional

• Your school/college is considering using more Fairtrade items in its canteen. Although this will help to support Fairtrade farmers, it will mean an increase in the price of meals. You feel strongly about this proposal and decide to write a letter to your Headteacher/Principal giving your views. ( Source )
• Increasing litter levels suggest we have lost all pride in our beautiful country. Prepare a talk for your classmates in which you give your opinions on this view. ( Source )
• Write a guide for other students persuading them to stay safe when using social media and the internet. ( Source )
• According to your PE teacher, ‘Swimming is the very best form of exercise.’ You have been asked to prepare a talk for your classmates in which you give your views about swimming. ( Source )
• You read the following in a newspaper: ‘Plastic is one of the biggest problems faced by our planet. Why would we use something for a few minutes that has been made from a material that’s going to last forever?’ Write a letter to the newspaper giving your views on the use of plastic. ( Source )
• “People today never show enough kindness to one another. We must make more effort to be kind.” Write a talk to give on BBC Wales’ new programme Youth Views persuading young people to be kind to others. ( Source )
• ‘We have enough problems in the world without worrying about animals.’ Write an article for the school or college magazine giving your views on this statement.
• You would like to raise some money for an animal charity. Write a talk for your classmates persuading them to donate to your chosen charity. ( Source )

CCEA English Language GCSE questions

Unit 1: writing for purpose and audience and reading to access non-fiction and media texts.

• Write a speech for your classmates persuading them to agree with your views on the following issue: “Young people today are too worried about their body image.” ( Source )
• Write an article for your school magazine persuading the readers to agree with your views on the following question: “Should school uniform have a place in 21st century schools?” ( Source )
• Write a speech for your classmates persuading them to agree with your views on the following question: “Are celebrities the best role models for teenagers?” ( Source )
• Write an article for your school magazine persuading the readers to agree with your views on the following statement: “Advertising is just another source of pressure that teenagers don’t need!” ( Source )

Unit 4: Personal or creative writing and reading literacy and non-fiction texts

• Either, Personal writing: Write a personal essay for the examiner about what you consider to be one of the proudest moments in your life.
• Or, Creative writing: Write your entry for a creative essay writing competition. The audience is teenagers. You may provide your own title. ( Source )
• Write a personal essay for the examiner about an experience that resulted in a positive change in your life.
• Write a creative essay for the examiner. The picture below is to be the basis for your writing. You may provide your own title. ( Source )

• Personal writing: Write a speech for your classmates about the most interesting person you have ever met.
• Creative writing: Write a creative essay for your school magazine. The picture below is to be the basis for your writing. You may provide your own title. ( Source )

• Personal writing: Write a personal essay for the examiner describing your dream destination.
• Creative writing: Write a creative essay for publication in your school magazine. The picture below is to be the basis for your creative writing. You may provide your own title. (Source)

Get 1:1 support and personalized feedback on your GCSE creative writing practice

For 1–2-1 writing support for your pre-GCSE child, join the Griffin Teaching Higher Writing Club—online weekly writing classes specifically tailored to English GCSE creative writing preparation.

In just 20 minutes per week and their writing will be transformed.

AQA GCSE Questions: Narrative, Creative and Descriptive

Below, you’ll find a list of narrative and descriptive questions for AQA GCSE English Language, Paper 1 Section B. These questions can also be used more generally as narrative and descriptive prompts for those exploring the craft of creative writing, or studying an alternate GCSE or IGCSE exam board. 

Thanks for reading! For all English Language and Literature courses,  click here .

AQA GCSE English Language Paper 1

AQA GCSE English Language Paper 2

THE QUESTION

Write a description of a mysterious place, as suggested by this picture:(2020) 

Write a story about an event that cannot be explained. (2020)

Write a story about a magical world as suggested by this picture: 

Different Types of Essay Questions

The picture shows a young child in pyjamas, who is standing beside a window, holding a snow globe. The snow globe is lighting up the child’s face. (2019)

Describe a place you think is beautiful. (2019)

Write a story about a time when things turned out unexpectedly. (2018)

Write a description of an old person as suggested by this picture: (2018)

Write a story with the title ‘Discovery’. (2017) 

Write a story, set in a mountainous area, as suggested by this picture: (2017) 

Write a story about two people from very different backgrounds. (2016) 

Thanks for reading! For all English Language and Literature courses,  click here .

Related Posts

The Theme of Morality in To Kill A Mockingbird

Unseen Poetry Exam Practice – Spring

To Kill A Mockingbird Essay Writing – PEE Breakdown

Unseen Poetry Exam Practice: The Man He Killed

An Inspector Calls – Official AQA Exam Questions

How to Get Started with Narrative Writing

What do I need to do for AQA Language Paper 2?

How to do well in the AQA GCSE Paper 2 Exam!

How to Write a Perfect Essay on The Crucible by Arthur Miller

AQA Power and Conflict: Example A* / L9 Grade Paragraph

© Copyright Scrbbly 2022

• International
• Education Jobs
• Schools directory
• Resources Education Jobs Schools directory News Search

AQA GCSE English Language Paper 1, Section B: Creative Writing Practise Questions

Subject: English

Age range: 11-14

Resource type: Assessment and revision

Last updated

21 May 2024

• Share through email
• Share through twitter
• Share through linkedin
• Share through facebook
• Share through pinterest

These questions are suitable for students and writers of all levels; they are intended to help individuals to explore a range of possible scenarios and environments. It may be useful to plan many more answers than you eventually write, you may also want to write multiple plans with different concepts for the same prompt or question, so that you can get a feeling for what works and what doesn’t.

Teaching or studying AQA? Have a resource on us! View our FREE Descriptive Writing answer to see whether the complete bundle is right for you.

View our COMPLETE AQA Language Paper 1 BUNDLE here.

Or our COMPLETE AQA Language Paper 2 BUNDLE here.

Please review our content! We always value feedback and are looking for ways to improve our resources, so all reviews are more than welcome.

For more English literature and language resources, view OUR SHOP here!

Tes paid licence How can I reuse this?

Get this resource as part of a bundle and save up to 39%

A bundle is a package of resources grouped together to teach a particular topic, or a series of lessons, in one place.

AQA GCSE English Language Paper 1 - A MEGA BUNDLE (Digital + printable PDF + PowerPoints)

A mega bundle of 19 AQA GCSE English Language Paper 1 resources, made by an AQA examiner and teacher. Suitable for teachers and students, available at a discount of 40%! If you're looking for the [AQA GCSE ENGLISH LANGUAGE PAPER 2](https://www.tes.com/teaching-resource/aqa-gcse-english-language-paper-2-complete-revision-bundle-12530173) bundle, click here. This bundle covers everything you need to teach or learn the AQA Language Paper 1: Explorations in Creative Reading and Writing to a high level. Contains both **example answers of varying levels** by students, and **full mark example answers** by an examiner. Try a resource for free to see whether this bundle is right for you: [AQA English Language Paper 1: Descriptive Writing Full Mark Answer A*/L9 Grade - Hot Air Balloon](https://www.tes.com/teaching-resource/resource-12791828) This bundle contains **digital + printable pdf + PowerPoint resources** that cover the following: OVERVIEW / BREAKDOWN OF THE PAPER 1 SECTION A RESOURCES: Section A: Breakdown Section A: Q1 + Q2 Example Student Answers + Feedback Section A: Q3 Breakdown + Example Answers (L5-L9) Section A: Q4 Study Guide + High-Grade Essays Section A: Full Mark Answers SECTION B RESOURCES: Section B: Breakdown Section B: Creative Writing Practise Questions Section B: How to Plan Question 5 Section B: Descriptive Writing B/L6 Answer (Storm) Section B: Descriptive Writing A/ L7 Answer (Island) Section B: Descriptive Writing A*/L9 Answer (Hot Air Balloon) Section B: Narrative Writing Full Mark Answer (Pyramids) Section B: Descriptive Writing A*/L9 Answer (Old Man) Section B: Narrative Writing A*/L9 Answer (Lake Narcissus) BONUS MATERIAL: Mock Paper 1: The Old Curiosity Shop Argumentative Essay Example Answers + Feedback Grade Boundaries Explained for Students How To Improve Reading + Recommended Short Stories Enjoy! If you need further help, please take a look at our English Language and Literature [VIEW OUR SHOP HERE](https://www.tes.com/teaching-resources/shop/Scrbbly)

Your rating is required to reflect your happiness.

It's good to leave some feedback.

Something went wrong, please try again later.

This resource hasn't been reviewed yet

To ensure quality for our reviews, only customers who have purchased this resource can review it

Report this resource to let us know if it violates our terms and conditions. Our customer service team will review your report and will be in touch.

Not quite what you were looking for? Search by keyword to find the right resource:

• Centre Services
• Associate Extranet
• All About Maths

Request blocked

This request has been blocked as part of the aqa security policy.

Your support ID is: 1773266424975589939

If you're seeing this message in error, call us on 0800 197 7162 (or +44 161 696 5995 outside the UK) quoting the support ID above.

Return to previous page

AQA GCSE English Language Past Papers

This section includes recent GCSE English Language past papers (9-1) (8700) from AQA. You can download each of the AQA GCSE English Language past papers and marking schemes by clicking the links below. Scroll down for papers from previous years.

June 2023 AQA GCSE (9-1) English Language (8700) Past Exam Papers

June 2023: Paper 1: Explorations in Creative Reading and Writing (8700/1) Download Insert    -     Download Past Paper     -     Download Mark Scheme

June 2023: Paper 2: Writer's Viewpoints and Perspectives (8700/2) Download Insert      -    Download Past Paper    -    Download Mark Scheme

November 2022 AQA GCSE (9-1) English Language (8700) Past Exam Papers

November 2022: Paper 1: Explorations in Creative Reading and Writing (8700/1) Download Insert    -     Download Past Paper     -     Download Mark Scheme

November 2022: Paper 2: Writer's Viewpoints and Perspectives (8700/2) Download Insert    -    Download Past Paper    -    Download Mark Scheme

June 2022 AQA GCSE (9-1) English Language (8700) Past Exam Papers

June 2022: Paper 1: Explorations in Creative Reading and Writing (8700/1) Download Insert    -     Download Past Paper     -     Download Mark Scheme

June 2022: Paper 2: Writer's Viewpoints and Perspectives (8700/2) Download Insert      -    Download Past Paper    -    Download Mark Scheme

November 2021 AQA GCSE (9-1) English Language (8700) Past Exam Papers (Labelled as June 2021)

November 2021: Paper 1: Explorations in Creative Reading and Writing (8700/1) Download Insert    -     Download Past Paper     -     Download Mark Scheme

November 2021: Paper 2: Writer's Viewpoints and Perspectives (8700/2) Download Insert      -    Download Past Paper    -    Download Mark Scheme

November 2020 AQA GCSE (9-1) English Language (8700) Past Exam Papers (Labelled as June 2020)

November 2020: Paper 1: Explorations in Creative Reading and Writing (8700/1) Download Insert    -     Download Past Paper     -     Download Mark Scheme

November 2020: Paper 2: Writer's Viewpoints and Perspectives (8700/2) Download Insert      -    Download Past Paper    -    Download Mark Scheme

June 2019 AQA GCSE (9-1) English Language (8700) Past Exam Papers

June 2019: Paper 1: Explorations in Creative Reading and Writing (8700/1) Download Insert    -     Download Past Paper     -     Download Mark Scheme

June 2019: Paper 2: Writer's Viewpoints and Perspectives (8700/2) Download Insert      -    Download Past Paper    -    Download Mark Scheme

November 2018 AQA GCSE (9-1) English Language (8700) Past Exam Papers

November 2018: Paper 1: Explorations in Creative Reading and Writing (8700/1) Download Insert   -    Download Past Paper    -    Download Mark Scheme

November 2018: Paper 2: Writer's Viewpoints and Perspectives (8700/2) Download Insert     -    Download Past Paper    -  D  ownload Mark Scheme

June 2018 AQA GCSE (9-1) English Language (8700) Past Exam Papers

June 2018: Paper 1: Explorations in Creative Reading and Writing (8700/1) Download Insert   -     Download Past Paper     -     Download Mark Scheme

June 2018: Paper 2: Writer's Viewpoints and Perspectives (8700/2) Download Insert      -     Download Past Paper     -     Download Mark Scheme

November 2017 AQA GCSE English Language (8700) Past Exam Papers

November 2017: Paper 1: Explorations in Creative Reading and Writing (8700/1) Download Insert    -     Download Past Paper    -    Download Mark Scheme

November 2017: Paper 2: Writer's Viewpoints and Perspectives (8700/2) Download Insert      -     Download Past Paper     -    Download Mark Scheme

June 2017 AQA GCSE English Language (8700) Past Exam Papers

June 2017: Paper 1: Explorations in Creative Reading and Writing (8700/1) Download Insert    -    Download Past Paper    -    Download Mark Scheme

June 2017: Paper 2: Writer's Viewpoints and Perspectives (8700/2) Download Insert      -     Download Past Paper     -    Download Mark Scheme

For more GCSE English Language past papers from other exam boards  click here .

• Student Hacks
• Studying & Revision
• Work & Jobs

10+ GCSE creative writing ideas, prompts and plot lines

Getting a good GCSE creative writing plot going can be difficult, here are some ideas to help you out.

Ahead of your exams, here are a selection of GCSE creative writing ideas and prompts to hopefully provide some inspiration.

The Lost Timepiece

Prompt: In an old, dusty attic, a teenager discovers a mysterious pocket watch that doesn’t seem to tell the correct time.

Potential Story Directions:

• The watch could transport the teenager to different moments in history whenever it's wound.
• The watch might belong to a long-lost relative, leading to a family mystery.
• The watch could be counting down to a significant event, and the protagonist must figure out what is about to happen.

The Secret Garden Door

Prompt: Behind the overgrown ivy in the school's garden, a student finds a door that wasn't there before.

• The door could lead to a magical world, offering an escape from everyday life but with challenges of its own.
• It might be a portal to the past, showing the school's history and secrets.
• The door could be a metaphorical passage to self-discovery, revealing hidden aspects of the character’s personality.

The Last Message

Prompt: A character receives a mysterious message in a bottle on the beach, written in a cryptic language.

• Deciphering the message could lead to an adventure, perhaps a treasure hunt or a rescue mission.
• The message might be from a distant land or time, offering insights into an ancient or futuristic world.
• It could be a personal message from someone significant in the character’s past, triggering a journey of emotional growth.

Midnight at the Museum

Prompt: A night guard at a museum notices that the exhibits come to life after midnight.

• The guard could interact with historical figures, learning about history firsthand.
• There might be a plot to steal an exhibit, and the living exhibits help to thwart it.
• The phenomenon could be linked to a supernatural event or an ancient curse that needs resolving.

The Forgotten Melody

Prompt: A pianist discovers an old, unplayed piano in a neglected music room that plays a melody no one seems to recognize.

• The melody could be a key to unlocking forgotten memories or a hidden past.
• It might be a magical melody, having various effects on listeners.

Each of these prompts offers a starting point for creative exploration, allowing students to develop their storytelling skills in imaginative and engaging ways.

Galactic Storm

Prompt: Astronauts on a mission to a distant planet encounter a bizarre, otherworldly storm.

• The storm could have strange, mind-altering effects on the crew.
• It might be a living entity, communicating in an unprecedented way.
• The crew must navigate through the storm to discover a hidden aspect of the universe.

Unearthed Powers

Prompt: A teenager suddenly discovers they have a supernatural ability.

• The power could be a family secret, leading to a journey of self-discovery.
• It might cause conflict with friends and society, forcing the protagonist to make difficult choices.
• The ability could attract unwanted attention, leading to a thrilling adventure.

Reflections of Reality

Prompt: A story that mirrors a significant real-life experience involving friendship or a pet.

• The story could explore the depth of human-animal bonds or the complexities of friendship.
• It might involve a heartwarming journey or a challenging ordeal.
• The protagonist learns valuable life lessons through these relationships.

Chronicle of Times

Prompt: A character discovers a way to travel through time.

• Traveling to the future, they encounter a radically different world.
• In the past, they might inadvertently alter history.
• The story could explore the moral and emotional implications of time travel.

Apocalyptic Event

Prompt: A natural disaster of unprecedented scale threatens humanity.

• The story could focus on survival, resilience, and human spirit.
• It might involve a journey to avert the disaster.
• The narrative could explore the societal changes that occur in the face of such a disaster.

The Unsolved Case

Prompt: A detective starts investigating a complex and mysterious murder.

• The investigation uncovers deep secrets and conspiracies.
• The detective's personal life might intertwine with the case.
• The story could have a surprising twist, challenging the reader's expectations.

Retold Fable

Prompt: Modernize a classic fable or story, such as the Boy Who Cried Wolf, in a contemporary setting.

• The story could be set in a modern city, exploring current social issues.
• It might be told from a different perspective, offering a fresh take on the moral of the story.
• The narrative could blend the original fable with current events, creating a powerful commentary.

Forbidden Love

Prompt: Two characters from vastly different worlds fall in love, against all odds.

• Their love could challenge societal norms and expectations.
• The story might explore the sacrifices they make for each other.
• It could be a journey of self-discovery and acceptance in the face of adversity.

Thomas Brella is the founder of Student Hacks, starting the website in 2013 while studying at the University of Brighton to share tips and tricks on life as a cash-strapped student. He's now spent over 10 years scoping out the best ways to live on a budget

Follow on Twitter

Like on facebook.

Mechanical Ventilation Final Exam: Practice Questions (2024)

by Respiratory Therapy Zone | Updated: Sep 9, 2024

Mechanical ventilation is a vital component in the management of patients with respiratory failure and other critical conditions.

Understanding the principles, modes, and management strategies of mechanical ventilation is essential for respiratory therapists and students aiming to provide optimal patient care.

This study guide offers an in-depth review of the key concepts and techniques associated with mechanical ventilation. It includes practice questions designed to test your knowledge and enhance your preparation for the final exam.

Mechanical Ventilation Final Exam Review (PDF)

If you need the correct answers, you can access them now for FREE, with no strings attached.

What is Mechanical Ventilation?

Mechanical ventilation is a life-support technique used to assist or replace spontaneous breathing in patients with respiratory failure or inadequate ventilation.

It involves the use of a ventilator, which delivers controlled amounts of air and oxygen into the lungs through a tube inserted into the patient’s airway.

Mechanical ventilation can be administered invasively, with an endotracheal or tracheostomy tube, or noninvasively, using a mask.

This technique is essential in critical care settings, enabling the management of severe respiratory conditions, reducing the work of breathing, and ensuring adequate gas exchange in patients unable to breathe effectively on their own.

Mechanical Ventilation Final Exam Practice Questions:

1. Which of the following is an indicator of weaning failure? A. Decreasing VD/VT B. Increasing MIP C. Increasing f/VT D. Decreasing f

2. Based on the weaning protocol described in the textbook, all of the following conditions must be met for consideration of a weaning attempt except: A. Hemodynamic stability B. Little or no sedation required C. PaO2/FIO2 D. Presence of inspiratory effort

3. Terminal weaning is defined as _______________ of mechanical ventilation that results in the ______________ of a patient. A. Withdrawal; death B. Withholding; death C. Withdrawal; vegetative state D. Withholding; vegetative state

4. Other causes of increased airflow resistance during mechanical ventilation include all of the following conditions except: A. Kinking of the ET tube B. Secretions in ET tube C. Use of a humidifier D. Use of an HME

5. All of the following pulmonary measurements suggest readiness for weaning attempt except: A. Maximal inspiratory pressure = -12 cm H2O B. VD/VT = 40% C. Static compliance = 32 mL/cm H2O D. f/VT = 80 breaths/min/L

6. If pulse oximetry is used to monitor a patient’s oxygenation status , the pulse oximetry O2 saturation (SpO2) should be kept in the mid-80s for allowance of machine inaccuracies. A. True B. False

7. The ____ is measured by dividing the patient’s tidal volume (measured at the airway opening) by the difference in the plateau pressure and the PEEP. A. Airway resistance B. Static lung compliance C. Deadspace to tidal volume ratio D. Dynamic lung compliance

8. Patients who fail the SBT often do so within the first 10 minutes of the trial. A. True B. False

9. ____ is an indicator of weaning failure. A. Increasing PaO2 B. Increasing PaCO2 C. Increasing SpO2 D. Increasing PaO2/FIO2

12. Generally accepted ventilatory weaning criteria includes a ____. A. Vital capacity of greater than 5 mL/kg B. Minute ventilation of less than 15 L with satisfactory blood gases C. Spontaneous VT of greater than 5 mL/kg D. PaCO2 of less than 65 mm Hg with normal pH

13. For a successful weaning outcome, ____. A. The PaO2 should be > 75 mm Hg B. The P(A-a)O2 should be < 450 mm Hg while on 100% O2. C. The PaO2/FIO2 should be 150 mm Hg D. The QS/QT should be < 45%

14. While assessing a 64 year-old patient receiving volume controlled ventilation, you note that the peak airway pressure has decreased from 52 cm H2O to 32 cm H2O. There have been no other changes to the ventilator settings. Which of the following actions would be appropriate at this time? A. Likelihood of weaning success. B. Readiness for extubation . C. Readiness of a patient to begin the weaning trial.

15. The ____ is used to estimate how much pulmonary perfusion is wasted. A. P/F index B. QS/QT ratio C. P(A-a)O2 gradient D. CaO2 content

16. Which of the following patient conditions is the least important consideration prior to weaning a patient from mechanical ventilation? A. Frequent arrhythmias B. Severe acidosis C. Ventilatory failure D. Use of PEEP

17. The blood gases and related parameters of a patient are as follows: pH = 7.43, PaCO2 = 40 mm Hg, PaO2 = 80 mm Hg, PECO2 = 30 mm Hg. What portion of the tidal volume is considered wasted (deadspace) ventilation? A. 15% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75%

18. A patient has the following oxygen content measurements: CcO2 = 20 vol%, CaO2 = 18 vol%, CvO2 = 13 vol%. The calculated QS/QT is about _________ and it reflects ___________ shunting. A. 19%; mild B. 29%; significant C. 39%; severe D. 55%; severe

19. ____ is defined as an absence of ventilatory support 48 hours following an extubation. A. Weaning success B. Weaning in progress C. Weaning failure D. Spontaneous breathing trial

20. Which of the following are included in a weaning protocol: A. The detailed process of weaning. B. The evaluation of weaning outcomes. C. The patient condition in which weaning may be attempted. D. All of the above

21. Automatic tube compensation (ATC) allows the patient to have a breathing pattern as if breathing spontaneously without an artificial airway. A. True B. False

22. When the RSBI or f/VT ratio becomes greater than 100 breaths/min/L, it correlates with weaning failure. A. True B. False

23. ____ is a clinical condition that decreases static compliance. A. Kinking of ET tube B. Bronchospasm C. Airway obstruction D. Tension pneumothorax

24. ____ is a clinical condition that decreases dynamic compliance. A. Atelectasis B. ARDS C. Retained secretions in the airways D. Retained secretions in the lungs

25. ____ = PAO2 – PaO2 A. QS/QT B. P(A-a)O2 C. CaO2 D. PaCO2

Mechanical Ventilation TMC Practice Questions

Take our quiz with premium TMC practice questions and detailed rationale explanations.

26. A patient has the following measurements while receiving mechanical ventilation: exhaled VT = 480 mL, PIP = 45 cm H2O, plateau pressure = 30 cm H2O, PEEP = 8 cm H2O. What is the calculated static compliance? Is it normal based on the pulmonary measurement criteria for weaning? A. 11 mL/cm H2O; normal B. 11 mL/cm H2O; abnormal C. 22 mL/cm H2O; normal D. 22 mL/cm H2O; abnormal

27. Respiratory muscle dysfunction may be due to all of the following conditions except: A. Electrolyte imbalance B. Excessive nutritional intake C. Low oxygen delivery D. Respiratory muscle atrophy due to muscle disuse

28. Patients who fail an SBT often exhibit the following objective clinical signs: tachypnea, ____, hypertension, hypotension, hypoxemia or acidosis, arrhythmias. A. Bradycardia B. Tachycardia C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular fibrillation

29. Termination criteria for weaning from mechanical ventilation includes a ____. A. SpO2 < 80% B. heart rate >120/min C. systolic pressure >180 mm Hg D. systolic pressure < 75 mm Hg

30. Sometimes SIMV and ____ are used together in patients who have failed the spontaneous breathing trial. A. PSV B. VS C. VAPS D. APRV

31. In ____, the pressure support level is adjusted automatically to achieve the target tidal volume. A. VS B. VAPS C. MMV D. APRV

32. For a successful weaning outcome, the patient should have a ____. A. static lung compliance B. VC C. VD/VT ratio should be >60% D. MIP of at least –30 cm H2O

33. A patient is being mechanically ventilated at an FiO2 of 100%. As a precautionary measure, you would monitor and limit its use to ___________ as lung damage can occur with prolonged exposure. A. 6-12 hours B. 12-24 hours C. 24-48 hours D. 48-72 hours

34. For adult patients during HFOV, the power is initially set at _____ and rapidly increased to achieve chest wiggle. Chest wiggle is defined as visible vibration from __________________. A. 4; shoulder to belly area B. 4; shoulder to mid-thigh area C. 6; shoulder to belly area D. 6; shoulder to mid-thigh area

35. While monitoring the ventilator , you notice that the pressure gauge goes from 0 cm H2O and then goes up and stays at 8 cm H2O throughout the expiratory phase. Since PEEP is not in use, this observation is called: A. CPAP B. Air leak C. Auto-PEEP D. COPD

36. An intubated patient is being treated with a broad-spectrum antibiotic . The physician would like to do a C&S sputum test. Since the patient’s cough is not strong enough to expectorate the retained secretions, you would collect the sputum sample in a _________________. A. Laryngeal mask airway B. Esophageal obturator C. Suction catheter D. Lukens trap

37. Alveolar hyperventilation is usually accompanied by a PaCO2 reading of _____________ and this may be managed by ________________ the mechanical VT or RR. A. > 45 mm Hg; increasing B. > 45 mm Hg; decreasing C. < 35 mm Hg; increasing D. < 35 mm Hg; decreasing

38. Upon entering Mr. Pendleton’s room you notice that the high-pressure alarm has been triggered since your last visit. It is no longer alarming. You should consider which of the following as the most likely cause? A. Atelectasis B. Bronchospasm C. Coughing D. Mucus plug

39. You are reviewing the chart of a patient who has been admitted to the ICU for severe malnutrition and dehydration. Which of the following urine output measurements may be used to determine if the patient has a fluid deficit? A. Urinary output below 20 mL/hour B. Urinary output C. Urinary output D. All of the above

40. A patient is being mechanically ventilated. Among other settings, PEEP-10 cm H2O and FiO2-70% are used. After determining the patient has met the weaning criteria, you would begin the weaning process by decreasing the: A. FiO2 gradually to 40% B. FiO2 gradually while simultaneously increasing the PEEP C. PEEP gradually to 3 cm H2O D. PEEP gradually while simultaneously increasing the FiO2

41. A medical resident asks you to explain the difference between CPAP and PEEP. You would describe that CPAP provides an end-expiratory pressure to patients who are: A. On pressure control mode B. Breathing spontaneously with mechanical breaths C. On SIMV mode D. Breathing spontaneously without mechanical breaths

42. Airway resistance imposed by the ventilator circuit and ETT can be minimized or overcome during spontaneous breathing by: A. Adding deadspace B. Increasing inspiratory flow C. Using PSV D. All of the above

43. Among the conditions below, auto-PEEP is most likely caused by _______________ while on the ventilator. A. Air trapping B. Excessive inspiratory flow C. Insufficient tidal volume D. Low frequency

44. Mrs. McFarland, a patient with a history of COPD , has been admitted for elective surgery. Her preoperative ABGs on room air would most likely show: A. pH = 7.16, PaCO2 = 34 mm Hg, PaO2 = 64 mm Hg B. pH = 7.45, PaCO2 = 44 mm Hg, PaO2 = 65 mm Hg C. pH = 7.37, PaCO2 = 54 mm Hg, PaO2 = 60 mm Hg D. pH = 7.48, PaCO2 = 54 mm Hg, PaO2 = 58 mm Hg

45. The initial frequency during HFOV is set at _______ Hz and may be ___________ if using amplitude alone fails to control the PaCO2. A. 5-6; decreased B. 5-6; increased C. 10-15; decreased D. 10-15; increased

46. Inverse ratio ventilation (IRV) is accomplished mainly by: A. Decreasing the VT B. Increasing the inspiratory flow rate C. Extending the inspiratory time D. Decreasing the PIP

47. In HFOV, the mean airway pressure (mPaw) is affected by the ___________ and the initial mPaw should start at __________ the mPaw obtained during conventional mechanical ventilation. A. Power setting; 5 cm H2O B. Power setting; 15 cm H2O C. Frequency; 5 cm H2O D. Frequency; 15 cm H2O

48. The physician asks you to assess a patient for excessive extracellular fluid. Among other signs, you would evaluate all of the following conditions except: A. Bounding pulse B. Increased cardiac output C. Oliguria D. Pulmonary edema

49. Permissive hypercapnia is a strategy in which the ________ value is allowed to go beyond its normal limit and it is used to ____________________: A. PaO2; reduce intracranial pressure in patients with head injuries B. PaO2; reduce O2 toxicity C. PaCO2; minimize ventilator-related lung injuries D. PaCO2; compensate for metabolic alkalosis

50. Mr. Jones, a patient who has been mechanically ventilated for 3 weeks, is now on a high-calorie diet. Which of the following can be a potential problem associated with overfeeding during mechanical ventilation? A. Decreased O2 consumption B. Decreased work of breathing C. Increased CO2 production D. Increased fixed acid

51. In HFOV, the power setting controls the amplitude of oscillation and thus the: A. Frequency B. Oxygenation level C. Tidal volume D. A and B only

52. Dr. Kao asks you to estimate a patient’s resting energy expenditure (REE) using the Harris-Benedict equation. You would gather the following set of information: A. Age, height, & weight B. Height & weight C. Sex, height, & weight D. Sex, age, height, & weight

53. The incidence of VAP may be reduced by employing all of the following procedures except: A. Proper handwashing B. More frequent ventilator circuit change C. Early microbiological exam and use of appropriate antibiotherapy D. Closed suction system

54. When an MDI is administered inline to a mechanically ventilated patient with an HME, A. MDI may not be used inline with a ventilator circuit B. The MDI must be placed between the patient and the HME C. The MDI must be placed between the ventilator and the HME D. The HME must be removed

55. The degree of ventilation is best assessed by measuring the patient’s: A. PaCO2 B. PaO2 C. pH D. PvCO2

56. In high frequency oscillatory ventilation (HFOV), hypoventilation may be managed by ___________ the amplitude or by ____________ frequency. A. Increasing; increasing B. Increasing; decreasing C. Decreasing; increasing D. Decreasing; decreasing

57. In patients with normal cardiopulmonary status, increasing the ________ is the treatment of choice in improving the patient’s oxygenation. A. FiO2 B. PEEP C. PSV D. VT

58. In mechanical ventilation, the most common approach to improving minute ventilation is to increase the _________________. However it should not exceed __________ as auto-PEEP may occur. A. Respiratory rate; 10/min B. Respiratory rate; 20/min C. Tidal volume; 600 mL D. Tidal volume; 800 mL

59. The major cation in the intracellular fluid (ICF) is: A. Sodium B. Calcium C. Potassium D. Magnesium

60. An order has been written for initiating MV at a VT setting of 3 mL/kg. You would contact the physician and explain to her that the VT setting would be too _________ and it may lead to _______________. A. High; barotrauma B. High; alveolar hyperventilation C. Low; atelectasis D. Low; bronchospasm

61. You are reviewing ABG results of a 30-year-old, postoperative patient who has been on assist/control (a/c) ventilation and is currently awake and breathing spontaneously. The results are as follows: pH = 7.53, PaCO2 = 30 mm Hg, PaO2 = 102 mm Hg, HCO3 = 24 mEq/L, a/c rate = 12/min, total rate = 18/min, tidal volume = 800 ml, FiO2 = 30%. Based on the information provided, you would make which of the following changes to the ventilator setting ? A. Change to SIMV mode B. Decrease a/c rate to 10/min C. Decrease FiO2 to 25% D. Increase the tidal volume to 850 ml

62. In humans, water makes up approximately _______ of the total body weight. A. 40% B. 50% C. 60% D. 70%

63. Mr. Johns is being mechanically ventilated with these settings: Mode = SIMV, rate = 12/min, tidal volume = 600 mL, FiO2 = 50%, PEEP = 0 cm H2O. Auto-PEEP of 6 cm H2O is observed consistently. You would change the: A. Frequency to 14/min B. Mode to assist control C. PEEP to 5 cm H2O D. Tidal volume to 700 mL

64. Upon entering the ICU, you are alerted by a series of low-pressure alarms from the ventilator. You would check the patient and ventilator for all of the following conditions except: A. Circuit disconnection B. Airway obstruction C. ETT cuff leak D. Loose humidifier connection

65. Auto-PEEP may be reduced or eliminated by all of the following methods except: A. Increasing the expiratory time B. Reducing the VT C. Reducing the frequency D. Reducing the inspiratory flow

66. The ABG report of Mr. Orin, a patient on mechanical ventilation, is as follows: pH = 7.50, PaCO2 = 32 mm Hg, PaO2 = 83 mm Hg. The physician asks you to make appropriate changes to the settings on the ventilator. Which of the following controls would have the least impact in correcting the patient’s condition as indicated by the ABG results? A. FiO2 B. PS level C. RR D. VT

67. The total rate of a mechanically ventilated patient is 10/min. At this rate, the ABG reveals a PaCO2 of 60 mm Hg. Assuming the VT and deadspace remain constant, calculate the RR necessary to achieve a PaCO2 of 40 mm Hg. A. 6/min B. 8/min C. 12/min D. 15/min

68. All of the following statements are true regarding mechanical tidal volume except: A. Increasing the tidal volume is the most common approach to improving minute ventilation. B. Tidal volume should be set according to the patient’s ideal body weight. C. Increasing the tidal volume should be considered when the patient’s ventilatory rate exceeds an ideal breathing pattern. D. Insufficient tidal volume increases the risk of atelectasis and hypercapnia.

69. The most common trigger for apnea alarms is: A. Apnea B. Loose humidifier fittin C. Cuff leak D. Disconnection

70. The following electrolytes are collected from a patient with severe sepsis who has been on a mechanical ventilator for two weeks. Which of the following electrolytes is out of its normal range? A. Sodium = 138 mEq/L B. Potassium = 1.5 mEq/L C. Chloride = 105 mEq/L D. Bicarbonate = 25 mEq/L

71. The degree of ventilation may be increased by increasing all of the following ventilator parameters except: A. VT B. PEEP C. PS D. Rate

72. The major cation in the extracellular fluid compartment is __________ and it plays an important role in ____________ balance. A. Sodium; fluid B. Potassium; fluid C. Calcium; acid-base D. Magnesium; acid-base

73. Low VT strategy is done to reduce the risk of ______________ and the target volume is reached when _________________. A. Atelectasis; PIP is B. Atelectasis; plateau pressure is C. Barotraumas; PIP is D. Barotraumas; plateau pressure is

74. The PaCO2 of Ms. Hart, a 40-year-old mechanically ventilated dependent patient with normal cardiopulmonary status, is 60 mm Hg. This value indicates _____________ and should be managed by ______________ the mechanical VT or RR. A. hyperventilation; increasing B. hyperventilation; decreasing C. hypoventilation; increasing D. hypoventilation; decreasing

75. All of the following could be the cause of a patient’s peak pressure increasing from 35 to 45 cm H2O except: A. Bronchospasm B. Resolving pulmonary edema C. The patient biting on the endotracheal tube . Secretions in the airway D. Secretions in the airway

76. The pressure required to maintain alveolar inflation is known as which of the following? A. Transairway pressure (PTA ) B. Transthoracic pressure (PTT) C. Transrespiratory pressure (PTR) D. Transpulmonary pressure (PL)

77. The term used to describe the tendency of a structure to return to its original form after being stretched or acted on by an outside force is which of the following? A. Elastance B. Compliance C. Viscous resistance D. Distending pressure

78. The condition that causes pulmonary compliance to increase is which of the following? A. Asthma B. Kyphoscoliosis C. Emphysema D. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS )

79. Use this figure to compute the static compliance (CS) for an intubated patient with an exhaled tidal volume (VT) of 500 mL. A. 14 mL/cm H2O B. 20 mL/cm H2O C. 33 mL/cm H2O D. 50 mL/cm H2O

80. The ventilator that functions most physiologically uses which of the following? A. Open loop B. Double circuit C. Positive pressure D. Negative pressure

81. Plateau pressure (Pplateau) is measured during which phase of the ventilatory cycle? A. Inspiration B. End-inspiration C. Expiration D. End-expiration

82. Calculate airway resistance (Raw) for a ventilator patient, in cm H2O/L/sec, with the following information: Peak inspiratory pressure (PIP) is 20 cm H2O, plateau pressure (Pplateau) is 15 cm H2O, PEEP is 5 cm H2O, and set flow rate is 50 L/min. A. 5 Raw B. 6 Raw C. 10 Raw D. 15 Raw

83. Calculate the static compliance (CS), in mL/cm H2O, when PIP is 47 cm H2O, plateau pressure (Pplateau) is 27 cm H2O, baseline pressure is 10 cm H2O, and exhaled tidal volume (VT) is 725 mL. A. 43 CS B. 36 CS C. 20 CS D. 0.065 CS

84. Air accidentally trapped in the lungs due to mechanical ventilation is known as which of the following? A. Plateau pressure (Pplateau) B. Functional residual capacity (FRC) C. Extrinsic positive end-expiratory pressure (extrinsic PEEP) D. Intrinsic positive end-expiratory pressure (intrinsic PEEP)

85. A blood gas report done on a neonate shows a PaCO2 of 58 mm Hg. The physician asks the therapist to increase the tidal volume via pressure-controlled ventilation. The therapist should increase the: A. Expiratory time B. Peak inspiratory pressure C. Positive end-expiratory pressure D. Tidal volume

86. The respiratory therapist enters modes and parameters into the ventilator with which of the following? A. Control logic B. Input power C. User interface D. Drive mechanism

87. The function of the exhalation valve is to do which of the following? A. Adjust the flow going to the patient B. Close during exhalation to vent patient gas C. Seal the external circuit during inspiration D. Determine the volume being delivered

88. In the image, what does “B” represent? A. Expiratory valve line B. Exhalation valve C. Expiratory line D. Main inspiratory line

89. There are two types of pneumatically powered ventilators: pneumatic and fluidic A. True B. False

90. Closed-loop ventilator logic systems are called “unintelligent” because they cannot be programmed to respond to changing conditions. A. True B. False

91. Modern ICU ventilators use flow control valves. These valves control or direct gas flow by opening or closing either completely or in small increments. A. True B. False

92. The power source used by the ventilator provides the energy to perform the work of ventilating the patient. Ventilator power sources include: A. Electrical B. Pneumatic C. Dual electrical-pneumatic D. All of the above

93. Early ventilators such as the tank ventilator and chest cuirass were designed to operate as: A. Positive pressure ventilators B. Negative pressure ventilators C. Constant pressure ventilators D. Volume-cycled ventilators

94. The equation of motion describes the relationships between which of the following? A. Pressure and flow during a mechanical breath B. Pressure and volume during a spontaneous breath C. Flow and volume during a mechanical or spontaneous breath D. Flow, volume, and pressure during a spontaneous or mechanical breath

95. How many variables can a ventilator control at one time? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

96. An increase in airway resistance during volume-controlled ventilation will have which of the following effects? A. Volume increase B. Flow decrease C. Pressure increase D. Rate decrease

97. An increase in airway resistance during pressure-targeted ventilation will have which of the following effects? A. Volume decrease B. Flow increase C. Pressure increase D. Rate decrease

98. The most commonly used patient-trigger variables include which of the following?: I. Flow II. Time III. Pressure IV. Volume A. I and III only B. II and IV only C. I and IV only D. II and III only

99. A patient who has been sedated and paralyzed by medication is being controlled by the ventilator. The set rate is 15 bpm. How many seconds does it take for inspiration and expiration to occur? A. 2 seconds B. 4 seconds C. 6 seconds D. 8 seconds

100. The trigger variable in the controlled mode is which of the following? A. Flow B. Time C. Pressure D. Volume

101. The inspiratory and expiratory flow sensors are reading a base flow of 5 liters per minute (L/min). The flow trigger is set to 2 L/min. The expiratory flow sensor must read what flow to trigger inspiration? A. 1 L/min B. 2 L/min C. 3 L/min D. 4 L/min

102. The patient trigger that requires the least amount of work of breathing for the patient is which of the following? A. Time B. Flow C. Pressure D. Volume

103. The limit variable set on a mechanical ventilator will do which of the following? A. End inspiration B. Begin inspiration C. Control the maximum value allowed D. Control the minimum value allowed

104. The variable that a ventilator uses to end inspiration is known as which of the following? A. Cycle B. Limit C. Trigger D. Baseline

105. The most common method of terminating inspiration during pressure support ventilation is which of the following? A. Flow B. Time C. Pressure D. Volume

106. The general indications for mechanical ventilation include all of the following except: A. Acute alveolar hyperventilation B. Acute hypoxemia (PaO2) C. Acute respiratory acidosis D. Apnea

107. Which maneuver will maintain air in the lungs at the end of inspiration, before the exhalation valve opens? A. Pressure limit B. Inspiratory hold C. Expiratory hold D. Expiratory resistance

108. A ventilator is set to deliver a 600 mL tidal volume. The flow rate is set at 40 L/min and the frequency is set at 10 breaths/min. If the flow rate is doubled and the patient is not assisting, which of the following will occur? A. The frequency will decrease. B. The tidal volume will increase. C. The expiratory time will increase. D. The inspiratory time will increase.

109. A patient with an opiate drug overdose is unconscious and has the following arterial blood gas results on room air: pH 7.20; partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) 88 mm Hg; partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) 42 mm Hg; bicarbonate (HCO3-) 25 mEq/L. Which of the following best describes this patient’s condition? A. Chronic hypoxemic respiratory failure B. Chronic hypercapnic respiratory failure C. Acute hypoxemic respiratory failure D. Acute hypercapnic respiratory failure

110. A patient with inadequate oxygenation of the brain may display which of the following conditions?: I. Confusion II. Excitement III. Somnolence IV. Compliance A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and IV only D. III and IV only

111. Which of the following values are indicative of acute respiratory failure and the need for ventilatory support?: I. Maximum inspiratory pressure (MIP) = – 25 cm H2O II. Dead space to tidal volume ratio (VD/VT) = 0.4 III. Vital capacity (VC) = 8 mL/kg IBW IV. pH = 7.20 A. I and II only B. II and III only C. III and IV only D. I and IV only

112. A 46-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a chief complaint of shortness of breath. Physical assessment reveals: pulse 102, blood pressure 138/80, respiratory rate 25 with accessory muscle use, and breath sounds are decreased with bilateral inspiratory and expiratory wheezing with a prolonged expiratory phase. The peak expiratory flow rate is 100 L/min. The immediate action by the respiratory therapist should include which of the following? A. Intubate and mechanically ventilate. B. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask. C. Administer continuous bronchodilator therapy . D. Initiate noninvasive positive pressure ventilation.

113. Which of the following patients is showing the signs of acute respiratory distress? A. One who is in a semi-Fowler position, watching TV, with a 2 L/min nasal cannula B. One in the high Fowler position, diaphoretic, anxious and unable to complete a sentence C. One who is leaning forward on a table, using accessory muscles , and pursed-lip breathing D. One in the high Fowler position, with a 2 L/min nasal cannula, eating breakfast

114. The underlying physiological process leading to pure hypercapnic respiratory failure is which of the following? A. Ventilation/perfusion mismatch B. Intrapulmonary shunting C. Diffusion impairment D. Alveolar hypoventilation

115. Which of the following are conditions affecting the central nervous system that is associated with a reduced drive to breathe? A. General anesthesia B. Stroke C. Narcotics D. All of the above

116. A patient has recently been diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea. The most appropriate treatment includes which of the following? A. Pressure Support Ventilation (PSV) B. Noninvasive Positive Pressure Ventilation (NPPV) C. Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) D. Pressure Controlled Continuous Mandatory Ventilation (PC-CMV)

117. Which of the following is the minimum ventilator rate that is considered full ventilatory support? A. 4 breaths/minute B. 6 breaths/minute C. 8 breaths/minute D. 10 breaths/minute

118. Partial ventilatory support can be provided by which of the following ventilator modes?: I. Pressure Controlled Continuous Mandatory Ventilation (PC-CMV) set rate 8 breaths/minute II. Volume Controlled Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (VC-SIMV) set rate 4 breaths/minute III. Pressure Controlled Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (PC-SIMV) set rate 10 breaths/minute IV. VC- MMV set Ve8 L/minute A. I and II only B. II and III only C. II and IV only D. III and IV only

119. Of the following breath descriptions, which one is considered spontaneous? A. Flow-triggered, pressure limited, flow cycled B. Time-triggered, volume limited, volume cycled C. Pressure-triggered, pressure limited, time cycled D. Patient-triggered, patient cycled, baseline pressure +5 cm H2O

120. What type of breath occurs when the ventilator controls the timing, tidal volume, or inspiratory pressure? A. Assisted B. Mandatory C. Spontaneous D. Controlled

121. An assisted breath in PC-CMV mode can be described by which of the following? A. Time-triggered, pressure limited, time cycled B. Patient triggered, pressure limited, time cycled C. Time-triggered, pressure limited, pressure cycled D. Patient triggered, volume limited, volume cycled

122. Full ventilatory support is provided by which of the following modes? A. Pressure Support Ventilation (PSV) with Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) B. Volume Support Ventilation (VSV) with Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) C. Volume-Controlled Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (VC-SIMV) rate 6 with pressure support (PS) D. Pressure-Controlled Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (PC-SIMV) rate 12 with pressure support (PS)

123. When a patient does not breathe spontaneously while in the airway pressure release ventilation (APRV) mode, the pressure-time scalar looks like that of which of the following? A. Pressure Support Ventilation (PSV) B. Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) C. Pressure-Controlled Inverse Ratio Ventilation (PCIRV) D. Volume-Controlled Continuous Mandatory Ventilation (VC-CMV)

124. A breath that is patient triggered, pressure targeted, and time cycled is which of the following? A. Assisted breath B. Mandatory breath C. Spontaneous breath D. Synchronized breath

125. A patient triggered, pressure limited, flow cycled breath describes which of the following? A. Spontaneous breath B. Pressure-support breath C. Volume-control breath D. Pressure-control breath

126. The ventilator mode that delivers pressure breaths that are patient- or time-triggered, volume targeted, time cycled, and where the pressure is automatically adjusted to maintain delivery of the targeted volume is which of the following? A. Volume Support Ventilation (VSV B. Pressure Augmentation (Paug) C. MMV D. Pressure Regulated Volume Control (PRVC)

127. If the tube does not have a vocal cord marking, a rule to estimate the depth of intubation is to add the number ____ to the body weight in kilograms (kg). A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7

128. Which of the following has a suggested starting ventilation of 20 to 30 cm H2O under low compliance conditions? A. PIP B. PEEP C. Flow rate D. Tidal volume

129. A neonate who is diagnosed with severe RDS has been deteriorating over the past 12 hours. The physician asks a therapist to evaluate this neonate for possible ECMO therapy. The therapist should recommend the neonate for ECMO therapy if she: A. Has a gestational age of more than 34 weeks. B. Has been mechanically ventilated for more than 2 weeks. C. Has evidence of intracranial hemorrhage (ICH) D. Weighs less than 2,000 g.

130. Other indications of ET intubation may include all of the following except: A. Administration of oxygen. B. Collection of tracheal specimens. C. Mechanical ventilation. D. Removal of secretions.

131. The most common cause of respiratory distress syndrome in newborns is: A. Congenital heart disease B. Low body weight C. Oxygen toxicity D. Surfactant deficiency

132. Intubation of the neonates following delivery is indicated under all of the following conditions except: A. Apgar score greater than 8. B. Difficulty ventilating by bag and mask. C. Meconium staining of amniotic fluid. D. Presence of diaphragmatic hernia.

133. The ability of HFOV to oxygenate the blood is not as good as with other methods. A. True B. False

134. Which of the following is not a primary function of mechanical ventilation? A. Correction of metabolic acidosis B. Oxygenation C. Removal of carbon dioxide D. Support ventilation failure

135. Candidates for HFOV may exhibit all of the following clinical conditions with the exception of: A. Chest radiograph consistent with diffuse, homogeneous lung disease, B. Difficulty to wean from conventional ventilation. C. Increasing ventilation requirement. D. Rapidly increasing FiO2 requirement.

136. For neonates below 1,000 g body weight, the proper size laryngoscope blade should be size _______ and ETT size _____ (internal diameter, mm). A. 0; 2.5 B. 0; 3.0 C. 1; 2.5 D. 1; 3.0

137. Because of the potential risks associated with ECMO , the clinical criteria used selects only those infants who are at an 80% or greater risk of mortality if conventional methods are used. A. True B. False

138. Patients with ____ are excluded from consideration of ECMO. A. ICH B. PPHN C. Sepsis D. MAS

139. Ideally, the temperature of the gas at the ____ should be 37 °C with a water content of 44 mg/L. A. Epiglottis B. Vocal cords C. Esophagus D. Trachea

140. Which of the following is not a purpose of a conventional ventilator when used in tandem with HFJV? A. It provides a continuous gas flow for entrainment by HFJV. B. It provides pressure support ventilation. C. Its sigh breaths prevent microatelectasis. D. Its sigh breaths stimulate the production of surfactant.

141. Neonatal ventilator circuits should have a high compression factor. A. True B. False

142. Early studies involving ____ showed that adequate ventilation occurred even when tidal volumes far below deadspace were used. A. HFV B. PCV C. Dual-control ventilation D. APRV

143. HFJV is used: A. After conventional ventilation has failed. B. For premies with RDS. C. In tandem with conventional mechanical ventilation. D. To provide intrapulmonary percussion.

144. During mechanical ventilation , some of the ventilator volume is “lost” within the circuit and humidifier and is not delivered to the patient. This wasted volume is called the ____. A. Expansion volume B. Compressible volume C. Compression factor D. Compliant factor

145. A(n) ____ of 35 to 50 mm Hg for 2 to 12 hours indicates a need for ECMO therapy. A. P(A-a)O2 B. PaO2 C. OI D. mPaw

146. Approximately 90% of surfactant is phospholipids, with ____ comprising 85% of the total amount. A. Dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine B. Phosphatidylcholine C. Phosphatidylglycerol D. Phosphatidylinosito

147. High frequency ventilation has the advantage of delivering ___________ and reducing the incidence of ______________. A. Large mean airway pressure; necrotizing tracheobronchitis B. Large tidal volume; barotrauma C. Low peak inspiratory pressure; air trapping D. Small tidal volume; barotrauma

148. Which of the following statements is true concerning the venovenous route in ECMO therapy? A. Blood is removed from the right atrium via the right carotid artery. B. Blood is removed from the right atrium via the femoral vein. C. Blood is returned to the aortic arch via the internal jugular vein. D. Blood is returned to the right atrium via the femoral vein.

149. During high-frequency jet ventilation (HFJV) or high-frequency oscillatory ventilation (HFOV), assessment of a patient’s cardiopulmonary status is difficult. Signs of deterioration may include all of the following except: A. Hypotension B. Pallor C. Respiratory distress D. Tachycardia

150. Which of the following statements is true concerning the venoarterial route in ECMO therapy? A. Blood is removed from the brachial or femoral artery. B. Blood is removed from the right common carotid artery. C. Blood is returned to the aortic arch via the internal jugular vein. D. Blood is returned to the aortic arch via the right common carotid artery.

151. To prevent premature shutdown (power off) of the heated wire, the temperature probe should be placed: A. At the ETT adapter. B. Inside the expiratory tubing. C. Inside the incubator. D. Outside the inlet to the incubator.

152. The indications for using HFJV include severe pulmonary disease that is complicated by all of the following except: A. Air leaks B. Pulmonary hypoplasia. C. Pulmonary hypotension D. Restrictive lung disease

153. In addition to an Apgar score of 3 or less obtained immediately after delivery, intubation of a neonate should be considered in all of the following conditions except: A. ETT administration of epinephrine or surfactant is indicated. B. Ineffective bag/mask ventilation. C. Premature rupture of amniotic membrane. D. Presence of thick meconium on delivery.

154. Selection of an ETT for neonates is based on the ____ or gestational age of the neonate. A. Birth length B. Chest circumference C. Neck circumference D. Birth weight

155. Recent publications have reported that N-CPAP is both feasible and effective in most very-low-birth-weight infants and those with acute respiratory failure. A. True B. False

156. Since the tidal volume (VT) control is not available when using pressure-controlled ventilation, an estimated VT can be calculated by multiplying the inspiratory time (I time) and ____. A. PIP B. I:E Ratio C. Flow rate D. FIO2

157. During ____________ controlled ventilation, the ventilator delivers a variable _____________ depending on a patient’s lung compliance or airflow resistance. A. pressure-; flow B. pressure-; volume C. volume-; flow D. volume-; pressure

158. Therapeutic or rescue administration of surfactant is indicated in infants with all of the following signs except: A. Ground glass appearance on chest x-ray. B. Hyperventilation. C. Progressive hypoxemia. D. Respiratory distress syndrome.

159. During pressure-controlled ventilation, a lower tidal volume would result when the patient’s compliance is __________ or airflow resistance is ______________. A. Decreased; decreased B. Decreased; increased C. Increased; decreased D. Increased; increased

160. A unique feature of the HFOV is that it produces extremely rapid ____________________ cycles. A. Inspiratory B. Expiratory C. Inspiratory and expiratory D. None of the answers are correct.

161. An infant has the following measurements: mean airway pressure = 25 cm H2O, PaO2 = 45 mm Hg at an FiO2 of 60%. What is the calculated oxygen index (OI)? A. 15 B. 27 C. 33 D. 52

162. Based on the indications for prophylactic use of surfactant, the following condition must be met: A. Birth weight less than 1250 g B. Gestational age at or less than 26 weeks. C. PaO2/PAO2 less than 0.22. D. All of the answers are correct.

163. ____ has potential applications for use in several diseases that traditionally have been difficult to treat such as RDS, aspiration syndromes, persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn, and pneumonia. A. Machine volume B. Liquid ventilation C. Volume guarantee D. HFV

164. The blood gas values of a normal umbilical artery sample include all of the following except: A. PaCO2 from 35-45 mm Hg B. PaO2 greater than 50 mm Hg C. pH from 7.30-7.45 D. SaO2 from 60%-90%

165. A randomized trial comparing two surfactants, those obtained from mammalian lungs and those that are synthetically produced, found an advantage in using synthetic surfactant. A. True B. False

166. A preterm infant has a diagnosis of respiratory distress syndrome. The therapist should expect to read in the chart that the neonate showed all of the following signs except: A. Apnea B. Chest retraction C. Expiratory grunting D. Nasal flaring

167. A neonate is being ventilated by HFOV. Her physician would like to lower the patient’s PaCO2. The therapist should increase the level of ventilation by ___________________ or ____________________. A. Decreasing the power (amplitude); decreasing the frequency (Hz) B. Decreasing the power (amplitude); increasing the frequency (Hz) C. Increasing the power (amplitude); decreasing the frequency (Hz) D. Increasing the power (amplitude); increasing the frequency (Hz)

168. The tidal volumes delivered by pressure-controlled ventilation are dependent on the: A. Airflow resistance B. Patient’s lung compliance C. Pressure setting D. All the answers are correct

169. Which of the following common surfactants has a recommended dosage of 4 mL/kg every 6 hours up to 4 total doses in the first 48 hours? A. Infasurf® B. Survanta® C. Exosurf® D. Curosurf®

170. In addition to the FiO2 control on a HFOV, a patient’s oxygenation status can be improved by increasing the: A. Amplitude B. Frequency C. Mean airway pressure D. Power

171. HFPPV is delivered at frequencies between ____ cycles per minute. A. 40 to 60 B. 60 to 150 C. 240 to 660 D. 480 to 1800

172. CPAP reduces V/Q mismatch by improving ____ and reducing intrapulmonary shunting. A. Minute ventilation B. Respiratory frequency C. Functional residual capacity D. Gas exchange

173. The indications for using ____ include severe pulmonary disease that is complicated by air leaks, such as pulmonary interstitial emphysema (PIE) , pulmonary hypoplasia, restrictive lung disease, and persistent pulmonary hypertension. A. PRVC B. HFOV C. MV D. HFJV

174. The power setting of HFOV determines all of the following parameters except: A. Amplitude of oscillation B. Degree of ventilation C. Inspiratory time D. Tidal volume

Final Thoughts

A solid grasp of mechanical ventilation is indispensable for both respiratory therapists and students. The practice questions in this guide have addressed the core elements, including different ventilation modes, settings, and patient management strategies.

By thoroughly reviewing the material and engaging with the practice questions, you should feel well-prepared to succeed in your final exam and effectively implement mechanical ventilation in clinical scenarios.

Written by:

John Landry is a registered respiratory therapist from Memphis, TN, and has a bachelor's degree in kinesiology. He enjoys using evidence-based research to help others breathe easier and live a healthier life.

• Hickey SM, Sankari A, Giwa AO. Mechanical Ventilation. [Updated 2024 Mar 30]. In: StatPearls [Internet]. Treasure Island (FL): StatPearls Publishing; 2024.
• Clinical Application of Mechanical Ventilation. 4th ed., Cengage Learning, 2013.
• Pilbeam’s Mechanical Ventilation: Physiological and Clinical Applications. 6th ed., Mosby, 2015.

Recommended Reading

Pharmacology final exam: study guide and practice questions, 97+ facts and statistics about mechanical ventilation, ventilator modes made easy: overview and study guide, negative vs. positive pressure ventilation, fundamentals of respiratory care final exam (practice questions), patient assessment final exam: study guide and practice questions.

Test Prep Resources: Placement Prep / PERT

• Placement Prep / PERT
• College of Education
• Graduate School Exams
• Military Exams
• English as a Second Language

Placement Test Prep at SPC

Visit the SPC College Placement Test website for helpful information on the PERT exam including study guides.

Testing and Education Center Database

• Testing and Education Reference Center This link opens in a new window Testing & Education Reference Center helps prepare students for specialized tests for college, graduate school, the military or trade school. It includes preparatory tests from the GED (General Educational Development) to the GRE (Graduate Record Examination General Test). Testing & Education Reference Center provides a variety of search options to help you find all the information you need on private high schools, distance education, two-year programs, undergraduate and graduate programs and executive education programs. The database can also assist you in writing admission's applications essays or resumes. preparatory examinations including entrance exams and certification and licensing tests. Funded by: Statewide Allocation

Books at SPC Libraries

SPC Libraries do own many general knowledge test books.  You can find books on grammar and sentence structure, math, and reading help such as the titles below.

• << Previous: Home
• Next: CLEP >>
• Last Updated: May 16, 2024 3:28 PM
• URL: https://spcollege.libguides.com/testprep